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AIIMS PAPER MAY 2003 SOLVED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

ANATOMY
Q 1. Surface ectoderm gives rise to all of the following structures except:
A. Lens
B. Corneal epithelium
C. Conjunctival epithelium
D. Anterior layers of iris
Ans. D
Q 2. All of the following ligaments contribute to the stability of ankle (talocrural) joint except:
A. Calcaneonavicular (spring)
B. Deltoid
C. Lateral
D. Posterior tibiofibular
Ans. A
Q 3. In dislocation of the jaw, displacement of the articular disc beyond the articular tubercle of the temporomandibular joint results from spasm or excessive contraction of the following muscle?
A. Buccinator
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Masseter
D. Temporalis
Ans. B
Q 4. Following surgical removal of a firm nodular cancer swelling in the right breast and exploration of the right axilla, on examination the patient was found to have a winged right scapula. Most likely this could have occurred due to injury to the:
A. Subscapular muscle
B. Coracoid process of scapula
C. Long thoracic nerve
D. Circumflex scapular artery
Ans. C
Q 5. A 50 year old man suffering from carcinoma of prostate showed areas of sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 vertebrae in X-ray. The spread of this cancer to the above vertebrae was most probably through:
A. Sacral canal
B. Lymphatic vessels
C. Internal vertebral plexus of veins
D. Superior rectal veins
Ans. C


PHYSIOLOGY
Q 6. Most accurate measurement of extracellular fluid volume (ECF) can be done by using:
A. Sucrose
B. Mannitol
C. Inulin
D. Aminopyrine
Ans. C
Q 7. A shift of posture from supine to upright posture is associated with cardiovasucular adjustments. Which of the following is not true in this context:
A. Rise in central venous pressure
B. Rise in heart rate
C. Decrease in cardiac output
D. Decrease in stroke volume
Ans. A
Q 8. There is a mid-cycle shift in the basal body temperature (BBT) after ovulation in women. This is caused by:
A. FSH peak
B. LH peak
C. Oestradiol
D. Progesterone
Ans. D
Q 9. A 55-year-old male accident victim in casualty urgently needs blood. Blood bank is unable to determine his ABO group, as his red cell group and plasma group do not match. Emergency transfusion of patient should be with:
A. RBC corresponding to his red cell group and colloids/crystalloid
B. Whole blood corresponding to his plasma group
C. O positive RBC and colloids/crystalloid
D. AB negative whole blood
Ans. C
Q 10. All are correct about potassium balance except:
A. Most of potassium is intracellular
B. Three quarter of the total body potassium is found in skeletal muscle
C. Intracellular potassium is released into extra-cellular space in response to severe injury or surgical stress
D. Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment
Ans. D
Q 11. In angina pectoris, the pain radiating down the left arm is mediated by increased activity in afferent (sensory) fibres contained in the:
A. Carotid branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Phrenic nerve
C. Vagus nerve and recurrent laryngeal nerve
D. Thoracic splanchnic nerve
Ans. D
Q 12. Osteoclast has specific receptor for:
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Calcitonin
C. Thyroxine
D. Vitamin D3
Ans. B
Q 13. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all except:
A. Numbness and tingling of circumoral region
B. Hyperactive tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek’s sign
C. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG
D. Carpopedal spasm
Ans. C
Q 14. The mechanism that protects normal pancreas from autodigestion is:
A. Secretion of biocarbonate
B. Protease inhibitors present in plasma
C. Proteolytic enzymes secreted in inactive form
D. The resistance of pancreatic cells
Ans. C
Q 15. Although more than 400 blood groups have been identified, the ABO blood group system remains the most important in clinical medicine because:
A. It was the first blood group system to be discovered
B. It has four different blood groups A, B, AB, O (H)
C. ABO (H) antigens are present in most body tissues and fluids
D. ABO (H) antibodies are invariably present in plasma when persons RBC lacks the corresponding antigen
Ans. D
Q 16. Father to son inheritance is never seen in case of:
A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. X- linked recessive inheritance
D. Multifactorial inheritance
Ans. C
Q 17. The hormone associated with cold adaptation is:
A. Growth hormone
B. Thyroxine
C. Insulin
D. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
Ans. C
Q 18. Various cells respond differentially to a second messenger (such as increased cAMP) because they have different:
A. Receptors
B. Enzymatic composition
C. Nuclei
D. Membrane lipids
Ans. B
Q 19. Brain lipid binding proteins is expressed by which of the following:
A. Mature astrocytes
B. Oligodendrocytes
C. Purkinje cells
D. Pyramidal neurons
Ans. A
BIOCHEMISTRY
Q 20. A newborn infant refuses breast milk since the 2nd day of birth, vomits on force-feeding but accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on the third day, by 5th day she is jaundiced with liver enlargement and eyes show signs of cataract. Urinary reducing sugar was positive but blood glucose estimated by glucose oxidation method was found low. The most likely cause is deficiency of:
A. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
B. Beta galactosidase
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase
D. Galactokinase
Ans. A
Q 21. The activity of the following enzyme is affected by biotin deficiency:
A. Transketolase
B. Dehydrogenase
C. Oxidase
D. Carboxylase
Ans. D
Q 22. Acetyl CoA acts as a substrate for all the enzymes except:
A. HMG-CoA synthetase
B. Malic enzyme
C. Malonyl CoA synthetase
D. Fatty acid synthetase
Ans. B
Q 23. At the physiological pH the DNA molecules are:
A. Positively charged
B. Negatively charged
C. Neutral
D. Amphipathic
Ans. B
Q 24. Replication and transcription are similar processes in mechanistic terms because both:
A. Use RNA primers for initiation
B. Use deoxyribonucleotides as precursors
C. Are semi conserved events
D. Involve phosphodiester bond formation with elongation occurring in the 5'-3' direction
Ans. D
Q 25. Cholesterol present in LDL:
A. Represents primarily cholesterol that is being removed from peripheral cells
B. Binds to a receptor and diffuses across the cell membrane
C. On accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors
D. When enters a cell, suppresses activity of acyl-CoA:cholesterol acyltransferase (ACAT)
Ans. C
FORENSIC
Q 26. Species identification is done by:
A. Neutron activation analysis (NAA)
B. Precipitin test
C. Benzidine test
D. Spectroscopy
Ans. B
Q 27. A dead born fetus does not have
A. Rigor mortis at birth
B. Adipocere formation
C. Maceration
D. Mummification
Ans. B
Q 28. In a suspected case of death due to poisoning where cadaveric rigidity is lasting longer than usual, it may be case of poisoning due to:
A. Lead
B. Arsenic
C. Mercury
D. Copper
Ans. B
PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE
Q 29. Commonest cause of neonatal mortality in India is:
A. Diarrheal diseases
B. Birth injuries
C. Low birth weight
D. Congenital anomalies
Ans. C
Q 30. In calculating dependency ratio, the numerator is expressed as:
A. Population under 10 years and 60 and above
B. Population under 15 years and 60 and above
C. Population under 10 years and 65 and above
D. Poputation under 15 years and 65 and above
Ans. D
Q 31. An adult male patient presented in the OPD with complaints of cough and fever for 3 months and haemoptysis off and on. His sputum was positive for AFB. On probing it was found that he had already received treatment with RHZE for 3 weeks from a nearby hospital and discontinued. How will you categorize and manage the patient?
A. Category III, start 2 (RHZ)3
B. Category II, start 2 (RHZE)3
C. Category I, start 2 (RHZE)3
D. Category II, start 2 (RHZES)3
Ans. C
Q 32. Residents of three villages with three different types of water supply were asked to participate in a study to identify cholera carrier. Because several cholera deaths had occurred in the recent past, virtually everyone present at the time submitted to examination. The proportion of residents in each village who were carriers was computed and compared. This study is a:
A. Cross-sectional study
B. Case-control study
C. Concurrent cohort study
D. Non-concurrent
Ans. A
Q 33. The following is true about the term ‘new families’:
A. It is a variant of the 3-generation family
B. It is applied to all nuclear families of less then 10 years duration
C. It is a variant of the joint family
D. It is applied to all nuclear families of less then 2 years duration
Ans. B
Q 34. A drug company is developing a new pregnancy- test kit for use on an outpatient basis. The company used the pregnancy test on 1 00 women who are known to be pregnant. Out of 100 women, 99 showed positive test. Upon using the same test on 100 non-pregnant women, 90 showed negative result. What is the sensitivity of the test?
A. 90%
B. 99%
C. Average of 90 & 99
D. Cannot be calculated from the given data
Ans. B
Q 35. A man presents with fever and chills 2 weeks after a louse bite. There was a maculo-papular rash on the trunk which spread peripherally. The cause of this infection can be:
A. Scrub typhus
B. Endemic typhus
C. Rickettsial pox
D. Epidemic typhus
Ans. D
Q 36. All of following statements are true regarding Q fever except:
A. It is a zoonotic infection
B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia
C. No rash is seen
D. Weil Felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis
Ans. D
Q 37. Reservoir of Indian kala azar is:
A. Man
B. Rodent
C. Canine
D. Equine
Ans. A
Q 38. All of the following features are suggestive of asbestosis except:
A. Occurs within five years of exposure
B. The disease progresses even after removal of contact
C. Can lead to pleural mesothelioma
D. Sputum contains asbestos bodies
Ans. A
Q 39. A screening test is used in the same way in two similar populations; but the proportion of false positive results among those who test positive in population A is lower than those who test positive in population B. What is the likely explanation?
A. The specificity of the test is lower in population A
B. The prevalence of the disease is lower in population A
C. The prevalence of the disease is higher in population A
D. The specificity of the test is higher in population A
Ans. C
Q 40. An investigator wants to study the association between maternal intake of iron supplements (yes/no) and birth weights (in gms) of newborn babies. He collects relevant data from 100 pregnant women and their newborns. What statistical test of hypothesis would you advise for the investigator in this situation?
A. Chi-square test
B. Unpaired or independent t-test
C. Analysis of variance
D. Paired t-test
Ans. B
Q 41. The usefulness of a screening test depends upon its:
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Reliability
D. Predictive value
Ans. A
Q 42. For testing the statistical significance of the difference in heights of school children among three socio-economic groups, the most appropriate statistical test is:
A. Student’s ‘t’ test
B. Chi-square test
C. Paired ‘t’ test
D. One way analysis of variance (one way ANOVA)
Ans. D
Q 43. For the field diagnosis of trachoma, the WHO recommends that follicular and intense trachoma inflammation should be assessed in:
A. Women aged 15-45 years
B. Population of 10 to 28 years range
C. Children aged 0-10 years
D. Population above 25 years of age irrespective of sex
Ans. C
PHARMACOLOGY
Q 44. The diuretic group that does not require access to the tubular lumen to induce diuresis is:
A. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
B. Na-Cl symport inhibitor
C. Mineralocorticoid antagonist
D. Na-K symport inhibitor
Ans. C
Q 45. The following is not true about the use of beta- blockers in heart failure:
A. It should be initiated at very low dose
B. It is most effective in new onset decompensated heart failure
C. Slow upward titration of dose is required
D. Carvedilol is most widely used in this condition
Ans. B
Q 46. km of an enzyme is:
A. Dissociation constant
B. The normal physiological substrate concentration
C. The substrate concentration at half maximal velocity
D. Numerically identical for all isoenzymes that catalyze a given reaction
Ans. C
Q 47. An HIV positive patient is on anti retroviral therapy with zidovudine, lamivudine and indinavir. He is proven to be suffering from genito-urinary tuberculosis. Which one of the following drugs should not be given to this patient:
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
Ans. B
Q 48. Sodium 2-mercapto ethane sulfonate (mesna) is used as a protective agent in:
A. Radiotherapy
B. Cancer chemotherapy
C. Lithotripsy
D. Hepatic encephalopathy
Ans. B
Q 49. A middle aged old man, with chronic renal failure is diagnosed to have sputum-positive pulmonary tuberculosis. His creatinine clearance is 25ml/min. All of the following drugs need modification in doses except:
A. Isoniazid
B. Streptomycin
C. Rifampicin
D. Ethambutol
Ans. C
Q 50. Use of which of the following drug is contraindicated in pregnancy:
A. Digoxin
B. Nifedipine
C. Amoxycillin
D. Enalapril
Ans. D
Q 51. The following statement is not true about sotalol:
A. It is a non-selective beta-blocker
B. It prolongs action potential duration throughout the heart
C. It is excreted through bile following hepatic metabolism
D. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is a common side-effect
Ans. C
Q 52. All of the following drugs are metabolised by acetylation except:
A. INH
B. Sulfonamides
C. Ketoconazole
D. Hydralazine
Ans. C
Q 53. All of the following cephalosporins have good activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa except:
A. Cephadroxil
B. Cefepime
C. Cefoperazone
D. Ceftazidime
Ans. A
Q 54. The following statement is not true about the use of clonidine in the treatment of hypertension:
A. Reduction in central sympathetic outflow
B. Increase in LDL-cholesterol on prolonged use
C. Sedation and xerostomia are common side effects
D. It can be combined with vasodilators
Ans. B
Q 55. For drugs with first order kinetics the time required to achieve steady state levels can be predicted from:
A. Volume of distribution
B. Half life
C. Clearance
D. Loading dose
Ans. B
Q 56. A patient with recent-onset primary generalized epilepsy develops drug reaction and skin rash due to phenytoin sodium. The most appropriate course of action is:
A. Shift to clonazepam
B. Restart phenytoin sodium after 2 weeks
C. Shift to sodium valproate
D. Shift to ethosuximide
Ans. C
Q 57. A 60-year old hypertensive patient on angiotensin II receptor antagonists (losartan) is posed for hernia repair surgery. The antihypertensive drug should be:
A. Continued till the day of operation
B. Discontinued 24 hours preoperatively
C. Discontinued one week preoperatively
D. Administered in an increased dosage on the day of operation
Ans. A
MICROBIOLOGY
Q 58. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is due to the following virulence factor:
A. M protein
B. Pyrogenic exotoxin
C. Streptolysin O
D. Carbohydrate cell wall
Ans. B
Q 59. The virulence factor of Nisseria gonorrhoeae includes all of the following except:
A. Outer membrane proteins
B. IgA protease
C. M-proteins
D. Pilli
Ans. C
Q 60. A ‘malignant pustule’ is a term used for:
A. An infected malignant melanoma
B. A carbuncle
C. A rapidly spreading rodent ulcer
D. Anthrax of the skin
Ans. D
Q 61. The following statements are true regarding botulism except:
A. Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin
B. Clostridium botulinum A, B, C and F cause human disease
C. The gene for botulinum toxin is encoded by a bacteriophage
D. Clostridium baratti may cause botulism
Ans. A
Q 62. A 20 year old male had pain in abdomen and mild fever followed by gastroenteritis. The stool examination showed presence of pus cells and RBCs on microscopy. The etiological agent responsible is most likely to be:
A. Enteroinvasive E. coli
B. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
C. Enteropathogenic E. coli
D. Enetroaggregative E. coli
Ans. A
Q 63. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis all of the following statements are true except:
A. It is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
B. It is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
C. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin
D. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in bacteremia due to B. fragilis
Ans. D
Q 64. There has been an outbreak of food borne salmonella gastroenteritis in the community and the stool samples have been received in the laboratory. Which is the enrichment medium of choice:
A. Cary Blair medium
B. VR medium
C. Selenite “F” medium
D. Thioglycholate medium
Ans. C
Q 65. A patient in an ICU is on a CVP line. His blood culture shows growth of grain positive cocci which are catalase positive and coagulase negative. The most likely etiological agent is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Enterococcus faecalis
Ans. B
Q 66. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is a DNA virus:
A. Hepatitis C virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Delta agent
D. Hepatitis E virus
Ans. B
PATHOLOGY
Q 67. The light brown perinuclear pigment seen on H & E staining of the cardiac muscle fibres in the grossly normal appearing heart of an 83 year old man at autopsy is due to deposition of:
A. Hemosiderin
B. Lipochrome
C. Cholesterol metabolite
D. Anthracotic pigment
Ans. B
Q 68. Dystrophic gene mutation leads to:
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Motor neuron disease
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Ans. D
Q 69. A 60 year old man presented with fatigue, weight loss and heaviness in left hypochondrium for 6 months. The hemogram showed Hb 10 gm/dL, TLC 5 lakhs/mm3, platelet count 4 lakhs/mm3, DLC: neutrophil 55%, lymphocytes 4%, monocytes 2%, basophils 6%, metamyelocytes 10%, myelocytes 18%, promyelocytes 2% and blast cells 3%. The most likely cytogenetic abnormality in this case is:
A. t(1;21)
B. t(9;22)
C. t(15;17)
D. Trisomy 21
Ans. B
Q 70. A renal biopsy from a 56 year old woman with progressive renal failure for the past 3 years shows glomerular and vascular deposition of pink amorphous material. It shows apple-green birefringence under polarized light after Congo red staining. These deposits are positive for lambda light chains. The person is most likely to suffer from:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Multiple myeloma
Ans. D
Q 71. A 40 year old male has chronic cough with fever for several months. The chest radiograph reveals a diffuse reticulonodular pattern. Microscopically on transbronchial biopsy there are focal areas of inflammation containing epitheloid cell granuloma, Langhans giant cells, and lymphocytes. These findings are typical for which of the following type of hypersensitivity immunologic responses:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Ans. D
Q 72. An adult old man gets burn injury to his hands. Over few weeks, the burned skin heals without the need for skin grafting. The most critical factor responsible for the rapid healing in this case is:
A. Remnant skin appendages
B. Underlying connective tissues
C. Minimal edema and erythema
D. Granulation tissue
Ans. A
Q 73. On sectioning of an organ at the time of autopsy, a focal, wedge-shaped firm area is seen accompanied by extensive hemorrhage, with a red appearance. The lesion has a base on the surface of the organ. This finding is typically of:
A. Lung with pulmonary thromboembolism
B. Heart with coronary thrombosis
C. Liver with hypovolemic shock
D. Kidney with septic embolus
Ans. A
Q 74. “Tophus” is the pathognomic lesion of which of the following condition:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Cystinosis
C. Gout
D. Eale’s disease
Ans. C
Q 75. Infertility is a common feature in “Sertoli cell only” syndrome because:
A. Too many Sertoli cells inhibit spermatogenesis via inhibin
B. Proper blood-testis barrier is not established
C. There is no germ cells in this condition
D. Sufficient number of spermatozoa are not produced
Ans. C
Q 76. The most common infectious agent associated with chronic pyelonephritis is:
A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Escherichia coli
Ans. D
MEDICINE
Q 77. A high amylase level in pleural fluid suggests a diagnosis of:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Malignancy
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Pulmonary infarction
Ans. B
Q 78. A 62 years old man with carcinoma of lung presented to emergency department with respiratory distress. His EKG showed electrical alternans. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pleural effusion
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Constrictive pericarditis
Ans. C
Q 79. Which of the following markers in the blood is the most reliable indicator of recent hepatitis B infection?
A. HBsAg
B. IgG anti-HBs
C. IgM anti-HBc
D. IgM anti-HBe
Ans. C
Q 80. Which of the following is the most common central nervous system parasitic infection?
A. Echinococcosis
B. Sparganosis
C. Paragonimiasis
D. Neurocysticercosis
Ans. D
Q 81. The severity of mitral stenosis is clinically best decided by:
A. Length of diastolic murmur
B. Intensity of diastolic murmur
C. Loudness of first heart sound
D. Split of second heart sound
Ans. A
Q 82. A young female presents with history of dyspnoea on exertion. On examination, she has wide, fixed split S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/VI) in left second intercostal space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainge
B. Tricuspid atresia
C. Ostium primum atrial septal defect
D. Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary arterial hypertension
Ans. C
Q 83. The severity of mitral regurgitation is decided by all of the following clinical findings except:
A. Presence of mid-diastolic murmur across mitral valve
B. Wide split second heart sound
C. Presence of left ventricular S3 gallop
D. Intensity of systolic murmur across mitral valve
Ans. D
Q 84. Which of the following is not a usual feature of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct?
A. Aphasia
B. Hemiparesis
C. Facial weakness
D. Dysarthria
Ans. A
Q 85. The risk of developing infective endocarditis is the least in a patient with:
A. Small ventricular septal defect
B. Severe aortic regurgitation
C. Severe mitral regurgitation
D. Large atrial septal defect
Ans. D
Q 86. Congenital long QT syndrome can lead to:
A. Complete heart block
B. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Recurrent supraventricular tachycardia
Ans. B
Q 87. Haemorrhagic pericarditis occurs in all of the following conditions except:
A. Transmural myocardial infarction
B. Dissecting aneurysm of aorta
C. Metastatic disease of pericardium
D. Constrictive pericarditis
Ans. D
Q 88. The commonest cause of death in a patient with primary amyloidosis is:
A. Renal failure
B. Cardiac involvement
C. Bleeding diathesis
D. Respiratory failure
Ans. B
Q 89. A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment which vascular structure should be evaluated first:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Bronchial artery
C. Pulomary vein
D. Superior vena cava
Ans. B
Q 90. The following statements regarding Turner syndrome are true except:
A. Occurence of Turner syndrome is influenced by maternal age
B. Most patients have primary amenorrhoea
C. Most patients have short stature
D. Edema of hands and feet is an important feature during infancy
Ans. A
Q 91. A vasopressin analogue does not produce therapeutic effect through vasopression V-2 receptor in which of the following:
A. Central diabetes insipidus
B. Bleeding esophageal varices
C. Type 1 von Willebrand’s disease
D. Primary nocturnal enuresis
Ans. B
Q 92. An obese lady aged 45 years, was brought to emergency in a semi comatose condition. The laboratory investigations showed K+ (5.8 mmol/L); Na+ (136 mmol/L); blood pH (7.1), HCO3 (12 mmol/L), ketone bodies (350 mg/dl). The expected level of blood glucose for this lady is:
A. < 45 mg/dl B. < 120 mg/dl C. > 180 mg/dl
D. < 75 mg/dl
Ans. C
Q 93. Atrial fibrillation may occur in all of the following conditions, except:
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Dilated cardiomyopathy
D. Mitral regurgitation
Ans. B
Q 94. Which of the following conditions is associated with Coombs’ positive hemolytic anaemia:
A. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Progressive systemic sclerosis
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
Ans. C
Q 95. Which of the following is the most common tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis?
A. Optic nerve glioma
B. Meningioma
C. Acoustic Schwannoma
D. Low grade astrocytoma
Ans. A
Q 96. Ophthalmoplegic migraine means:
A. When headache is followed by complete paralysis of the III and VI nerve on the same side as the hemicrania
B. When the headache is followed by partial paralysis of the III nerve on the same side as the hemicrania without any scotoma
C. Headache associated with III, IV and VI nerve paralysis
D. Headache associated with optic neuritis
Ans. B
Q 97. After a minor head injury a young patient was unable to close his left eye and had drooling of saliva from left angle of mouth. He is suffering from:
A. VII nerve injury
B. V nerve injury
C. III nerve injury
D. Combined VII and III nerve injury
Ans. A
Q 98. “Sleep apnoea”, is defined as a temporary pause in breathing during sleep lasting at least:
A. 40 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 10 seconds
Ans. D
Q 99. A 45 years old hypertensive male presented with sudden onset severe headache, vomiting and neck stiffness. On examination he didn’t have any focal neurological deficit. His CT scan showed blood in the Sylvain fissure. The probable diagnosis is:
A. Meningitis
B. Ruptured aneurysm
C. Hypertensive bleed
D. Stroke
Ans. B
Q 100. Which of the following statements about peptic ulcer disease is true:
A. Helicobacter pylori eradication increases the likelihood of occurrence of complications
B. The incidence of complications has remained unchanged
C. The incidence of Helicobacter pylori reinfection in India is very low
D. Helicobacter pylori eradication does not alter the recurrence ratio
Ans. B




Q 101. Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia?
A. Coronary angiography
B. MUGA scan
C. Thallium scan
D. Resting echocardiography
Ans. C
Q 102. Which of the following is the commonest location of hypertensive hemorrhage:
A. Pons
B. Thalamus
C. Putamen/external capsule
D. Cerebellum
Ans. C
Q 103. Kenny packs were used in the treatment of:
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Muscular dystrophy
C. Polyneuropathies
D. Nerve injury
Ans. A
Q 104. The level of alpha fetoprotein is raised in all of the following except:
A. Cirrohosis of liver
B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
C. Yolk sac tumor
D. Dysgerminoma
Ans. D
PAEDIATRICS
Q 105. All of the following are characteristic features of Kwashiorkar, except:
A. High blood osmolarity
B. Hypoalbuminemia
C. Edema
D. Fatty liver
Ans. A
Q 106. The most common leukocytoclastic vasculitis affecting children is:
A. Takayasu disease
B. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome (Kawasaki disease)
C. Henoch Schonlein purpura
D. Polyarteritis nodosa
Ans. C




Q 107. All of the following are seen in rickets, except:
A. Bow legs
B. Gunstock deformity
C. Pot belly
D. Craniotabes
Ans. B
Q 108. In neonatal screening programme tor detection of congenital hypothyroidism, the ideal place and time to collect the blood sample for TSH estimation is:
A. Cord blood at time of birth
B. Heal pad blood at the time of birth
C. Heal pad blood on 4th day of birth
D. Peripheral venous blood on 28th day
Ans. A
Q 109. A newborn baby had normal APGAR score at birth and developed excessive frothing and choking on attempted feeds. The investigation of choice is:
A. Esophagoscopy
B. Bronchoscopy
C. MRI chest
D. X-ray chest and abdomen with the red rubber catheter passed per orally into esophagus
Ans. D
Q 110. A 3-year old boy is detected to have bilateral renal calculi. Metabolic evaluation confirms the presence of marked hypercalciuria with normal blood levels of calcium, magnesium, phosphate, uric acid and creatinine. A diagnosis of idiopathic hypercalciuria is made. The dietary management includes all, except:
A. Increased water intake
B. Low sodium diet
C. Reduced calcium intake
D. Avoid meat proteins
Ans. C
Q 111. The treatment of choice for primary grade V vesico-ureteric reflux involving both kidneys in a 6 month old boy is:
A. Antibiotic prophylaxis
B. Ureteric reimplantation
C. Cystoscopy followed by subureteric injection of teflon
D. Bilateral ureterostomies
Ans. A
Q 112. Which one of the following does not produce cyanosis in the first year of life:
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
C. Truncus arteriosus
D. Double outlet right ventricle
Ans. A
Q 113. A 11-month old boy, weighing 3 kg, has polyuria, polydipsia and delayed motor milestones. Blood investigations show creatinine of 0.5 mg/dl, potassium 3 mEq/1, sodium 125 mEq/1, chloride 88 mEq/l, calcium 8.8 mg/dl, pH 7.46 and bicarbonate 26 mEq/l. Ultrasonography shows medullary nephrocalcinosis. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Renal tubular acidosis
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Bartter’s syndrome
D. Pseudohypoaldosteronism
Ans. C
Q 114. One year old male child presented with poor urinary stream since birth. The investigation of choice for evaluation is:
A. Voiding cystourethrography (VCUG)
B. USG bladder
C. Intravenous urography
D. Uroflowmetry
Ans. A
Q 115. A new born baby has been referred to the casualty as a case of congenital diaphragmatic hernia. The first clinical intervention is to:
A. Insert a central venous pressure line
B. Bag and mask ventilation
C. Insert a nasogastric tube
D. Ventilate with high frequency ventilator
Ans. C
Q 116. A 9-years old child has steroid dependant nephrotic syndrome for the last 5 years. He has received corticosteroids almost continuously during this period and has cushingoid features. The blood pressure is 120/86 mmHg and there are bilateral subcapsular cataracts. The treatment of choice is:
A. Levamisole
B. Cyclophosphamide
C. Cyclosporin A
D. Intravenous pulse corticosteroids
Ans. B
Q 117. All of the following methods are used for the diagnosis of HIV infection in a 2 month old child, except:
A. DNA-PCR
B. Viral culture
C. HIV ELISA
D. p24 antigen assay
Ans. C
Q 118. A-13-year old boy is referred for evaluation of nocturnal enuresis and short stature. His blood pressure is normal. The hemoglobin level is 8 g/dl, urea 112 mg/dl, creatinine 6 mg/dl, sodium 119 mEq/dl, potassium 4 mEq/l, calcium 7 mg/dl, phosphate 6 mg/dl and alkaline phophatase 300 U/l. Urinalysis shows trace proteinuria with hyaline casts; no red and white cells are seen. Ultrasound shows bilateral small kidneys and the micturating cystourethrogram is normal. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Alport’s syndrome
B. Medullary sponge kidney
C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
D. Nephronophthisis
Ans. D
SURGERY
Q 119. A three years old boy presents with poor urinary stream. Most likely cause is:
A. Stricture urethra
B. Neurogenic bladder
C. Urethral calculus
D. Posterior urethral valve
Ans. D
Q 120. There is a high risk of renal dysplasia in:
A. Posterior urethral valve
B. Bladder exstrophy
C. Anorectal malformation
D. Neonatal sepsis
Ans. A
Q 121. Hypochloremia, hypokalemia and alkalosis are seen in:
A. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
B. Hirschsprung’s disease
C. Esophageal atresia
D. Jejunal atresia
Ans. A
Q 122. Post-dural puncture headache is typically:
A. A result of leakage of blood into the epidural space
B. Worse when lying down than in sitting position
C. Bifrontal or occipital
D. Seen within 4 hours of dural puncture
Ans. C




Q 123. A young patient presents with history of dysphagia more to liquid than solids. The first investigation you will do is:
A. Barium swallow
B. Esophagoscopy
C. Ultrasound of the chest
D. CT scan of the chest
Ans. A
Q 124. Which of the following is not true of gas gangrene:
A. It is caused by Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium perfringens is a gram-negative spore-bearing bacillus
C. Gas gangrene is characterized by severe local pain, crepitus and signs of toxemia
D. High dose penicillin and aggressive debridement of affected tissue is the treatment of established infection
Ans. B
Q 125. In a blast injury, which of the following organ is least vulnerable to the blast wave:
A. GI tract
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Ear drum
Ans. C
Q 126. Which of the following is not a contraindication for extra corporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL) for renal calculi?
A. Uncorrected bleeding diasthesis
B. Pregnancy
C. Ureteric stricture
D. Stone in a calyceal diverticulum
Ans. D
Q 127. Which of the following is not an appropriate investigation for anterior urethral stricture?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging
B. Retrograde urethrogram
C. Micturating cystourethrogram
D. High frequency ultrasound
Ans. A
Q 128. The recommended treatment for preputial adhesions producing ballooning of prepuce during micturition in a 2-year-old boy is:
A. Wait and watch policy
B. Circumcision
C. Dorsal slit
D. Preputial adhesions release and dilatation
Ans. B
Q 129. Cells from the neural crest are involved in all except:
A. Hirschsprung’s disease
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Primitive neuroectodermal tumour
D. Wilms’ tumour
Ans. D
Q 130. A Warthin’s tumour is:
A. An adenolymphoma of parotid gland
B. A pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid
C. A carcinoma of the parotid
D. A carcinoma of submandibular salivary gland
Ans. A
Q 131. Regarding testicular tumour, the following are false except:
A. They are commonest malignancy in older man
B. Seminomas are radiosensitive
C. Only 25% of stage 1 teratomas are cured by surgery alone
D. Chemotherapy rarely produces a cure in those with metastatic disease
Ans. B
Q 132. Upper GI endoscopy and biopsy from lower esophagus in a 48 year old 1ady with chronic heart burn shows presence of columnar epithelium with goblet cells. The feature is most likely consistent with:
A. Dysplasia
B. Hyperplasia
C. Carcinoma in-situ
D. Metaplasia
Ans. D
Q 133. Which of the following is not an oncological emergency:
A. Spinal cord compression
B. Superior vena caval syndrome
C. Tumor lysis syndrome
D. Carcinoma cervix stage III B with pyometra
Ans. D
Q 134. Use of tamoxifen in carcinoma of breast patients does not lead to the following side effects:
A. Thromboembolic events
B. Endometrial carcinoma
C. Cataract
D. Cancer in opposite breast
Ans. D
Q 135. In the immediate post operative period the common cause of respiratory insufficiency could be because of the following, except:
A. Residual effect of muscle relaxant
B. Overdose of narcotic analgesic
C. Mild hypovolemia
D. Mycocardial infarction
Ans. C
Q 136. A patient undergoing surgery suddenly develops hypotension. The monitor shows that the end tidal CO2 has decreased abruptly by 155 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?
A. Hypothermia
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Massive fluid deficit
D. Myocardial depression due to anaesthetic agent
Ans. B
ORTHOPAEDICS
Q 137. Direct impact on the bone will produce a:
A. Transverse fracture
B. Oblique fracture
C. Spiral fracture
D. Communited fracture
Ans. A
Q 138. A 12 year old girl complains of pain persisting in her leg for several weeks with a low grade fever. A radiograph reveals a mass in the diaphyseal region of the left femur with overlying cortical erosion and soft tissue extension. A biopsy of the lesion, shows numerous small round cells, rich in PAS positive diastase sensitive granules. The most likely histological diagnosis is:
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
B. Osteoblastoma
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Chondroblastoma
Ans. C
Q 139. ‘Whip-lash’ injury is caused due to:
A. A fall from a height
B. Acute hyperextension of the spine
C. A blow on top to head
D. Acute hyperflexion of the spine
Ans. B
Q 140. On 3 phase 99mTc-MDP bone scan, which of the following bone lesions will show least osteoblastic activity:
A. Paget’s disease
B. Osteoid osteoma
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Fibrous cortical defect
Ans. D


GYNAECOLOGY & OBSTETRICS
Q 141. Low dose progestational contraceptives primarily act on:
A. Oviductal motility
B. Uterine endometrium
C. Cervix
D. Pituitary
Ans. C
Q 142. The commonest cause of breech presentation is:
A. Prematurity
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Placenta praevia
D. Polyhydramnios
Ans. A
Q 143. According to WHO criteria, the minimum normal sperm count is:
A. 10 million/ml
B. 20 million/ml
C. 40 million/ml
D. 60 million/ml
Ans. B
Q 144. In triple screening test for Down syndrome during pregnancy all of the following are included except:
A. Serum beta hCG
B. Serum oestriol
C. Maternal serum alfa fetoprotein
D. Acetylcholinesterase
Ans. D
Q 145. All of the following are known side effects with the use of tocolytic therapy except:
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Fever
Ans. D


Q 146. Periconceptional use of the following agent leads to reduced incidence of neural tube defects:
A. Folic acid
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Vitamin A
Ans. A


Q 147. All of the following drug have been used for medical abortion except:
A. Mifepristone
B. Misoprostal
C. Methotrexate
D. Atosiban
Ans. D
Q 148. Which statements is true regarding ventose (vaccum extractor):
A. Minor scalp abrasions and subgaleal haematomas in new born are more frequent than forceps
B. Can be applied when foetal head is above the level of ischial spine
C. Maternal trauma is more frequent than forceps
D. Can not be used when fetal head is not fully rotated
Ans. A
Q 149. A 21 year old primigravida is admitted at 39 weeks gestation with painless antepartum haemorrhage. On examination uterus is soft non-tender and head engaged. The management for her would be:
A. Blood transfusion and sedatives
B. A speculum examination
C. Pelvic examination in OT
D. Tocolytics and sedatives
Ans. C
Q 150. The commonest cause of occipito-posterior position of fetal head during labour is:
A. Maternal obesity
B. Deflexion of fetal head
C. Multiparity
D. Android pelvis
Ans. D
Q 151. The commonest congenital anomaly seen in pregnancy with diabetes mellitus is:
A. Multicystic kidneys
B. Oesophageal atresia
C. Neural tube defect
D. Duodenal atresia
Ans. C
Q 152. A drop in fetal heart rate that typically lasts less than 2 minutes and usually associated with umbilical cord compression is called:
A. Early deceleration
B. Late deceleration
C. Variable deceleration
D. Prolonged deceleration
Ans. C
Q 153. Following renal disorder is associated with worst pregnancy outcome:
A. Systemic lupus erythematous
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
D. Scleroderma
Ans. D
Q 154. A perimenopausal lady with well differentiated adenocarcinoma of uterus has more than half myometrial invasion, vaginal metastasis and inguinal lymph node metastasis. She is staged as:
A. Stage IIIB
B. Stage IIIC
C. Stage IVA
D. Stage IVB
Ans. D
OPHTHALMOLOGY
Q 155. Aniseikonia means:
A. Difterence in the axial length of the eyeballs
B. Difference in the size of corneas
C. Difference in the size of pupils
D. Difference in the size of images formed by the two eyes
Ans. D
Q 156. Common ocular manifestation in trisomy 13 is:
A. Capillary hemangioma
B. Bilateral microphthalmos
C. Neurofibroma
D. Dermoid cyst
Ans. B
Q 157. An optic nerve injury may result in all of the following except:
A. Loss of vision in that eye
B. Dilatation of pupil
C. Ptosis
D. Loss of light reflex
Ans. C
Q 158. Enucleation of the eyeball is contraindicated in:
A. Endophthalmitis
B. Panophthalmitis
C. Intraocular tumours
D. Painful blind eye
Ans. B
Q 159. The differential diagnosis of retinoblastoma would include a11 except:
A. Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous
B. Coats’ disease
C. Retinal astrocytoma
D. Retinal detachment
Ans. D
Q 160. The treatment of congenital glaucoma is:
A. Essentially topical medications
B. Trabeculoplasty
C. Trabeculotomy with trabeculectomy
D. Cyclocryotherapy
Ans. C
Q 161. Under the school eye screening programme in India, the initial vision screening of school children is done by:
A. School teachers
B. Primary level health workers
C. Eye specialists
D. Medical officers
Ans. A
Q 162. The eye condition for which the World Bank assistance was provided to the National Programme for Control of Blindness (1994-2001) is:
A. Cataract
B. Refractive errors
C. Trachoma
D. Vitamin A deficiency
Ans. A
Q 163. All of the following are given global prominence in the VISION 2020 goals, except:
A. Refractive errors
B. Cataract
C. Trachoma
D. Glaucoma
Ans. D
Q 164. On mutation, which of the following may give rise to hereditary glaucoma:
A. Optineurin
B. Ephrins
C. RBA8
D. Huntingtin
Ans. A
Q 165. All of the following types of lymphoma are commonly seen in the orbit except:
A. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma, mixed lymphocytic & histiocytic
B. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma, lymphocytic poorly differentiated
C. Burkitt’s lymphoma
D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Ans. D
Q 166. AI1 the fol1owing muscles are innervated by facial nerve except:
A. Occipito-frontalis
B. Anterior belly of digastric
C. Risorius
D. Procerus
Ans. B
Q 167. Stapes foot plate covers:
A. Round window
B. Oval window
C. Inferior sinus tympani
D. Pyramid
Ans. B
Q 168. The treatment of choice for stage 1 cancer larynx is:
A. Radical surgery
B. Chemotherapy
C. Radiotherapy
D. Surgery followed by radiotherapy
Ans. C
Q 169. The etiology of anterior ethmoidal neuralgia is:
A. Inferior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
B. Middle turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
C. Superior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
D. Causing obstruction of sphenoid opening
Ans. B
Q 170. All the following signs could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus except:
A. Constricted pupil in response to light
B. Engorgement of the retinal veins upon ophthalmoscopic examination
C. Ptosis of the right eyelid
D. Right ophthalmoplegia
Ans. A
DERMATOLOGY
Q 171. The following drug is indicated in the treatment of pityriasis versicolar:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Griseofulvin
D. Chloroquine
Ans. A
Q 172. A 24 year old male presents to a STD clinic with a single painless ulcer on external genitalia. The choice of laboratory test to look for the etiological agent would be:
A. Scrappings from ulcer for culture on chocolate agar with antibiotic supplement
B. Serology for detection of specific IgM antibodies
C. Scrappings from ulcer for dark field microscopy
D. Scrappings from ulcer for tissue culture
Ans. C
Q 173. Podophyllum resin is indicated in the treatment of:
A. Psoriasis
B. Pemphigus
C. Condyloma acuminata
D. Condylomata lata
Ans. C
Q 174. A 24 years old female has flaccid bullae in the skin and oral erosions. Histopathology shows intraepidermal acantholytic blister. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Pemphigoid
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
Ans. C
ANAESTHESIA
Q 175. Following spinal subarachnoid block a patient develops hypotension. This can be managed by the following means except:
A. Lowering the head end
B. Administration of 1000 ml of Ringer lacate before the block
C. Vasopressor drugs like methoxamine
D. Use of ionotrope like dopamine
Ans. A
Q 176. Which one of the following is the shortest acting intravenous analgesic:
A. Remifantanil
B. Fentanyl
C. Alfentanil
D. Sufentanil
Ans. A
Q 177. The following combination of agents are the most preferred for short day care surgeries:
A. Propofol, fentanyl, isoflurane
B. Thiopentone sodium, morphine, halothane
C. Ketamine, pethidine, halothane
D. Propofol, morphine, halothane
Ans. A
Q 178. During laryngoscopy and endotracheal intubation which of the maneuver is not performed:
A. Flexion of the neck
B. Extension of head at the atlanto-occipital joint
C. The laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upper incisors
D. In a straight blade laryngoscope, the epiglottis is lifted by the tip
Ans. C
Q 179. The administration of succinylocholine to a paraplegic patient led to the appearance of dysarrhythmias, conduction abnormalities and finally cardiac arrest. The most likely cause is:
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Hypermagnesemia
Ans. B
Q 180. In a young patient who had extensive soft tissue and muscle injury, which of these muscle relaxants used for endotracheal intubation might lead to cardiac arrest:
A. Atracurium
B. Suxamethonium
C. Vecuronium
D. Pancuronium
Ans. B
Q 181. A patient was administered epidural anaesthesia with 15 ml of 1.5% lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He developed hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of block. The commonest cause would be:
A. Allergy to drug administered
B. Systemic toxicity to drug administered
C. Patient got vasovagal shock
D. Drug has entered the subarachnoid space
Ans. D
Q 182. Pin index system is a safety feature adopted in anaesthesia machines to prevent:
A. Incorrect attachment of anaesthesia machines
B. Incorrect attachment of anaesthesia face masks
C. Incorrect inhalation agent delivery
D. Incorrect gas cylinder attachment
Ans. D
Q 183. The ‘pin index code’ of nitrous oxide is:
A. 2, 5
B. 1, 5
C. 3, 5
D. 2, 6
Ans. C
Q 184. The ideal muscle relaxant used for a neonate undergoing porto-enterostomy for biliary atresia is:
A. Atracurium
B. Vecuronium
C. Pancuronium
D. Rocuronium
Ans. A
Q 185. In a 2 months old infant undergoing surgery for biliary atresia, you would avoid one of the following anaesthetic:
A. Thiopentone
B. Halothane
C. Propofol
D. Sevoflurane
Ans. B
Q 186. All of the following factors decrease the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of an inhalation anaesthetic agent except:
A. Hypothermia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Anemia
Ans. C
Q 187. Visual analogue scale (VAS) is most widely used to measure:
A. Sleep
B. Sedation
C. Pain intensity
D. Depth of anaesthesia
Ans. C
Q 188. The narrowest part of larynx in infants is at the cricoid level. In administering anesthesia this may lead to all except:
A. Choosing a smaller size endotracheal tube
B. Trauma to the subglottic region
C. Post operative stridor
D. Laryngeal oedema
Ans. D
Q 189. Regarding neonatal circumcision, which one of the following is true:
A. It should be done without anaesthesia, as it is hazardous to give anaesthesia
B. It should be done without anesthesia, as neonates do not perceive pain as adults
C. It should be done under local anaesthesia only
D. General anaesthesia should be given to neonate for circumcision as they also feel pain as adults
Ans. C
RADIOLOGY
Q 190. Stereotactic radio-surgery is a form of:
A. Radiotherapy
B. Radioiodine therapy
C. Robotic surgery
D. Cryosurgery
Ans. A
Q 191. Which one of the following imaging modalities is most sensitive for evaluation of extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma:
A. Ultrasound
B. CT
C. MRI
D. MIBG scan
Ans. D
Q 192. Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive to detect early renal tuberculosis:
A. Intravenous urography
B. Ultrasound
C. Computed tomography
D. Magnetic resonance imaging
Ans. A




Q 193. All of the following form radiolucent stones except:
A. Xanthine
B. Cysteine
C. Allopurinol
D. Orotic acid
Ans. B
Q 194. For the treatment of deep seated tumors, the following rays are used:
A. X-rays and gamma-rays
B. Alpha rays and beta-rays
C. Electrons and positrons
D. High power laser beams
Ans. A
PSYCHIATRY
Q 195. The treatment of choice in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is:
A. Haloperidol
B. Imipramine
C. Methylphenidate
D. Alprazolam
Ans. C
Q 196. Yawning is a common feature of:
A. Alcohol withdrawal
B. Cocaine withdrawal
C. Cannabis withdrawal
D. Opioid withdrawal
Ans. D
Q 197. False sense of perception without any external object or stimulus is known as:
A. Illusions
B. Impulse
C. Hallucination
D. Phobia
Ans. C
Q 198. A middle aged man presented with pain in back, lack of interest in recreational activities, low mood, lethargy, decreased sleep and appetite for two months. There was no history suggestive of delusions or hallucinations. He did not suffer from any chronic medical illness. There was no family history of psychiatric illness. Routine investigations including haemogram, renal function tests, liver function tests electrocadiogram did not reveal any abnormality. This patient should be treated with:
A. Haloperidol
B. Sertraline
C. Alprazolam
D. Olanzapine
Ans. B


Q 199. The following is a Schneider’s first rank symptom:
A. Persecutory delusion
B. Voices commenting on actions
C. Delusion of guilt
D. Incoherence
Ans. B
Q 200. An elderly house wife lost her husband who died suddenly of myocardial infarction couple of years ago. They had been staying alone for almost a decade with infrequent visits from her son and grandchildren. About a week after the death she heard his voice clearly talking to her as he would in a routine manner from the next room. She went to check but saw nothing. Subsequently she often heard his voice conversing with her and she would also discuss her daily matters with him. This however, provoked anxiety and sadness of mood when she was preoccupied with his thought. She should be treated with:
A. Clomipramine
B. Alprazolam
C. Electroconvulsive therapy
D. Haloperidol
Ans. D

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