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ALL INDIA 2001 January MD/MS entrance examination

1. A woman presents with 2 months of amenorrhea, lower abdominal pain, facial pallor and shock. Diagnosis is
a. ruptured ovarian cyst
b. ruptured ectopic pregnancy
c. threatned abor.
d. septic abortion
Ans. b

2. (repeated) A child aged 2 years with 'a positive family history'. On peripheral blood smear target cells are seen. He has hypochromic microcytic anemia with Hb 6 gm%. Next investigation of choise is
a. Hb electrophoresis
b. coombs test
c. liver function tests
d. Osmatic fragility test
Ans. a

3. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause infections with
a. Tinea saginata
b. Tinea solium
c. Hydatid cyst
d. Trichuris trichura
Ans. b

4. In a pregnant woman with red degeneration. Management is
a. myomectomy
b. conservative rx
c. hysterectomy
d. termination of pregnancy
Ans. b

5. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the
a. left gastric
b. splenic
c. celiac trunk
d. gastroduodenal
Ans. d

6. A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratory distress and froths at the mouth. Diagnosis is
a. tracheoesophageal fistula
b. tetralogy of fallot
c.
d.
Ans. a

7. consequence of maternal use of cocaine is
a. hydrops
b. sacral agenesis
c. cerebral infarction
d. hyper trichosis
Ans. c

8. A patient has involvement of PIP joint, DIP joint and the carpo-metacarpal of base of thumb, sparing the wrist joint is seen in
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Osteoarthritis
c. Ankylosing spondilytis
d. Psoriasis arthritis
Ans. b

9. ovarian cyst detected in a pregnant woman; mgt:
a. immediate removal by laprotomy
b. wait and watch
c. second trimester surgery
d. remove at time of cesarean section
Ans. c

10. Motor supply of the diaphragm
a. thoracodorsal
b. intercostal nerves
c. phrenic nerve
d. sympathetic
Ans. c

11. All of the following are supplied by the facial nerve except
a. lacrimal gland
b. submandibular gland
c. nasal glands
d. parotid
Ans. d

12. FALSE regarding hCG
a. secreted by cytotrophoblasts
b. acts on same receptor as LH
c. has luteotrophic action
d.
Ans. a

13. In left coronary artery thrombosis, most likely involved ares is
a. anterior wall of right ventricle
b. anterior wall of left ventricle
c. anterior wall of right atrium
d. inferior surface of right ventricle
Ans. b

14. neonate has recurrent abdominal pain and diaphoresis on feeding, with murmur, which may lead to MI. diagnosis is
a. asd
b. vsd
c. tof
d. coronary anomalous
Ans. d

15. A neonate delivered at 32 weeks, on ventilator, xray shows 'white out', ABG reveals SpO2 of 75, ventilator settings are as, FiO2 70, rate 50/minute. Next step to be taken?
a. increase rate to 60
b. increase FiO2 to 80
c. continue with the same
d. weaning ventilator
Ans. ? (d)

16. A male pseudohermaphrodite child of 46 XY karyotype presents with BP 110/80 mmHg. Most likely enzyme deficiency is
a. 21 hydroxylase
b. 17 hydroxylase
c. 11 hydroxylase
d. 3-beta hydroxylase
Ans. ? b/d (if neonate = d)

17. Ramu, 8 yr old boy presents upper GI bleeding . On examination, there is splenomegaly, no ascites, no hepatomegaly; esophageal varices present on UGIE. Diagnosis is
a. budd chiari syndrome
b. non cirrhotic portal fibrosis
c. cirrhosis
d. veno occlusive disease
Ans. b

18. A 5 year child of is suffering from nephrotic syndrome is well responding to steroid therapy. What would be the finding on light microscopy:
a. no finding
b. basement membrabne thickning
c. podocyte lesions
d.
Ans. a

19. A neonate presents with respiratory distress, contralateral mediastinal shift and multiple cystic air filled lesions in chest. Most likely diagnosis is
a. congenital diaphragmatic hernia
b. congenital lung cysts
c. pneumonia
d.
Ans. b (ref. chapman)

20. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis, lytic skull lesions, ear discharge, hepatosplenomegaly; likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. lymphoma
c. histiocytosis X
d.
Ans. c

21. A neonate with jaundice and clay white stools. On liver biopsy giant cells were seen. diagnosis is
a. physiological jaundice
b. neonatal hepatitis with extrabiliary atresia
c. neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice
d.
Ans. b

22. A child aged 2 years with 'a positive family history'. On peripheral blood smear target cells oare seen. He has hypochromic microcytic anemia with Hb 6 gm%. Next investigation of choise is
a. Hb electrophoresis
b. coombs test
c. liver function tests
d. Osmatic fragility test
Ans. a

23. Most common cause of urine obstruction in a boy:
a. antr urethral valves
b. posterior urethral valves
c. stone
d.
Ans. b

24. Which bond is not formed between an enzyme substrate complex
a. electrostatic
b. covalent
c. van der waals
d. hydrogen
Ans. b

25. ground glass appearance is NOT seen in
a. hyaline membrane disease
b. pneumonia
c. left to right shunt
d. obstructive TAPVC
Ans. c

26. A 5 yr child present with calculus of size 2 cm. in the upper ureter. He has haematuri
a. On USG no obs is seen. TT of choice
a. ureterolithotomy
b. endoscopy
c. ESWL
d. observation
Ans. c

27. potts shunt is
a. rt subclavian artery to rt pulmonary
b. descending aorta to left pulmonary
c. left subclavian to left pulmonary
d. ascending aorta to right pulmonary
Ans. b

28. 3 month old child presents with intermittent stridor. Most likely cause is
a. laryngotracheobronchitis
b. laryngomalacia
c. respi. obstruction
d.
Ans. b

29. Which of the following is true regarding cretinism
a. short limbs compared to trunk
b. proportionate shortening
c. short limb and short stature
d. short limn long stature
Ans. c

30. A female 30 yrs old, presents with has abdominal mass with complain of sudden ab
d. Pain. Most likely diagnosis is
a. torsion of subserous fibroid
b. twisted ovarian cyst
c. rupture of ectopic preg.
d.
Ans. b

31. surfactant production in lungs starts at
a. 28 weeks
b. 32 wks
c. 34 wks
d. 36 wks
Ans. a

32. If urine sample darkens on standing, most likely condition is
a. phenylketonuria
b. alkaptonuria
c. maplpe syrup urine disease
d. DM
Ans. b

33. Which of the following condition requires dialysis
a. salicylate toxicity
b. digitalis toxicity
c. barbiturate toxicity
d.
Ans. a

34. Basanti age 29 yrs from bihar presents with tuberculosis. She delivers baby. She will be instructed all of the followings except
a. give baby BCG
b. withhld breast feeding
c. give ATT for 2 years
d. proper disposal of sputum
Ans. b

35. Highest binding of iron in plasma is seen with
a. transferrin
b. ferritin
c. hemoglobin
d. ceruloplasmin
Ans. a

36. Source of the nitrogen in urea cycle
a. aspartate and ammonia
b. glutamate and ammonia
c. argenase and ammonia
d.
Ans. a

37. Maximum no. of H bonds are found between which base pairs?
a. A-T
b. G-C
c. A-G
d. C-T
Ans. b

38. Basic amino acids are
a. aspartate and glutamate
b. serine and glycine
c. lysine and arginie
d.
Ans. c

39. Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk?
a. linoleate
b. linolenic
c. palmitic
d. d-hexanoic * * *
Ans. ?

40. blood is non-newtonian fluid because
a. viscosity changes with velocity
b. density changes with velocity
c. density does not changes with velocity
d. viscosity does not changes with velocity
Ans. tell us

41. Protonation and deprotonation at pH 7 occures in which amino acid
a. serine
b. histidine
c. threonine
d. proline
Ans. b

42. Patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with features of hypogonadism; likely diagnosis:
a. turners
b. klinefelters
c. edwards
d. Down syn.
Ans. b

43. mother has sickle cell disease; husband is normal: % chances of children having, respectively, sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait:
a. 0 and 100
b. 25 and 75
c. 25 and 50
d. 25 and 25
Ans. a

44. A woman has had 2 previous anencephalic babies, risk of having a third one is
a. 0%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d. 50%
Ans. b

45. DNA analysis of chorionic villus/ amniocentesis NOT likely to detect
a. tay sachs
b. hemophilia A
c. sickle cell disease
d. duchenne muscular dystrophy
Ans.b/c ?

46. cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by
a. cyanide
b. carbon monoxide
c. MAO
d.
Ans. a

47. cystine deficient lactose media is preferred over McConkey agar because
a. former prevents swarming of proteus
b. it is a differential medium
c. prevents pseudomonas growth
d. promotes growth of candida
Ans. ?

48. A baby with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, organic acids in urine, lactic acidosis with normal ammoni
a. diagnosis is
a. organic aciduria
b. multiple carboxylase deficiency
c. propionic acidemia
d.
Ans. ?

49. Which of the following RNA has abnormal purine bases
a. tRNA
b. mRNA
c. rRNA
d. 16S RNA
Ans. a

50. All of the follwings are true about gout except
a. due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines
b. due to increased met
a. Of purines
c.
d.
Ans. a

51. A beta hemolytic bacteria resistant to vancomycin, gentamycin and ampicillin. It shows growth in 6.5% NaCl and bile is likely to be
a. strep agalactiae
b. strep pneumococcus
c. enterococcus
d. strep bovis
Ans. c

52. A child presents with white patch over the tonsils and resp. distress. A throat swab was taken. It should be cultured with
a. loeffler serus slope
b. LJ medium
c. Caryblair media
d.
Ans. a

53. Basanti, age 26, pregnant woman from bihar presents with hepatic encephalopathy. The likely diagnosis:
a. Hep E
b. hep B
c. sepsis
d. maternal alcohol toxicity
Ans. a

54. Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic shock syndrome PJC
a. pyrogenic exotoxin
b. erythrogenic toxin
c. hemolysin
d. M Protien
Ans. a

55. A woman presnts with 6 weeks amenorrhea and lump in the RIF. Investigation of choice
a. USG abdomen
b. Laparoscopy
c. CT
d. shielded X - ray
Ans. a

56. All of the following are correct regarding streptococcus except
a. M protein is virulent factor
b. mucoid colony
c. m type is most common
d.
Ans. ?

57. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis:
a. RSV
b. Rhinovirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Rotavirus
Ans. c

58. Which of the following organism gives greenish/yellow coloured colonies
a. staphylococcus
b. E. Coli
c. Pseudomonas
d. Peptostreptococcus
Ans. c

59. All of the following are true regarding NK cells, except
a. activated by IL-2
b. variant to large lympho.
c. CD3 and TCR receptor present
d.
Ans. c

60. All of the following are true regarding regarding Ureaplasma urealyticum except
a. causes non gonococcal urethritis
b. associated with infertility
c. bacterial vagnosis
d. epididymitis
Ans. b/c ?

62. Which of the following is not a complete sterilization agent
a. glutaraldehyde
b. absolut alcohol
c. hydrogen peroxide
d. sodium hypochlorite
Ans. b

63 All of the following are correct regarding EHEC excpet
a. sereny test +ve
b. fermants sorbitol
c. causes HUS
d. shiga like exotoxin
Ans. a

64. Most common cause of meningitis in kids 6 months to 2 years of age
a. pneumococcus
b. staph
c. H influenza
d. E.coli
Ans. c

65. A patient with 14 days of fever, suspected to have typhoi
d. Most appropriate test is
a. blood culture
b. widal test
c. stool culture
d. urine culture
Ans. b ?

66. A 50 yrs old woman having post coital bleeding. She has a visible growth on PS. Next mm
a. punch biopsy
b. colposcopic biopsy
c. pap smear
d. cone biopsy
Ans. a

67. Rekha, a 45 yrs woman with negative pap smear with +ve endocervical curratage. next management will be
a.
b. vaginal hysterectomy
c. conisation
d. Warthim hysterectomy
Ans. c ?

68. A girl presnts with primary amenorrhea; grade V thelarche, grade II pubarche; no axillary hair; possible diagnosis
a. testicular feminisation
b. mullerian agenesis
c. turners
d. gonadal dysgenesis
Ans. a

69. Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule breached, ascites positive for malignant cells: stage is:
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
Ans. b

70. All of the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH patient except
a. 37 weeks
b. IUD
c. Transverse lie
d. continous profuse bleeding
Ans. c (ref. dutta)

71. Rokitansky Kuster hauser syndrome: most likely condition is
a. ovary agenesis
b. fallopian tubes absent
c. vaginal atresia
d. bicornuate uterus
Ans. c

72. All of the following are true regarding a patient with acid peptic disease except
a. mesoprostol is the drug of choice in given with NSAIDS
b. DU is preventable by the use of nighttime H2 blockers
c. omeprazole may help ulcers refractory to H2 blockers
d. mesoprostol is DOC in pregnant
Ans. d

73. A boy attempts suicide, brought to PRIVATE doctor and he is successfully cure. Doctor should
a. inform police
b. not required to inform
c. report to magistrate
d. callup girlfriend and ask her to make up
Ans. b

74. A case of carcinoma cervix found to be in altered sensorium and having hiccups. Cause could be
a. septicemia
b. uremia
c.
d.
Ans. b

75. patient of head injury, has no relatives, requires urgent cranial decompression; Doctor should
a. operate without formal consent
b. take police consent
c. wait for relatives
d. take
Ans. a


76. A pt with pneumonia for 5 days admitted to hospital. He suddenly ceases to recognize doctor and staff and think that the he is in jail. He complains of scorpions attacking him, is in altered sensorium: condition is:
a. acute delirium
b. acute dementia
c. acute schizophrenia
d. acute paranoid
Ans. a

77. Basanti age 27 years, female thinks her nose is ugly; her idea is fixed and not shared by anyone else. Whenever she goes out of home, she hides her face with a cloth. She visits to Surgeon. next step would be:
a. investigate and then operate
b. refer to psychiatrist
c. reassure the patient
d. immediate operation.
Ans. b

78. A patient having sensation of bugs crawling all over his body: this may be effect of
a. cocaine
b. alcohol
c. tea
d. benzodiazepines
Ans. a

79. A person missing from home, found wandering purposefully, well groomed, has some degree of amnesia
a. dissociative fugue
b. dissociative amnesia
c. schizophrenia
d. dementia
Ans. a

80. swelling in the neck after a thyroidectomy; what is the likely complication.
a. resp. obstruction
b. recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
c. hypo volumia
d.
Ans. a

81. Dinesh, age 56 years man with complaints of slowness of movements, postural instability, tremors, rigidity and memory loss. Diagnosis is
a. multi infarct dementia
b. Alzheimer's disease
c. parkinsonism
d.
Ans. c

82. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following:
a. ca kidney
b. ca colon
c. testicular terotoma
d. ca cervix
Ans. d

83. Indicative of ante-mortem drowning?
a. cutis anserina
b. rigor mortis
c. washerwomans feet
d. grass and weeds grasped in the hand
Ans. d

84. A man with alcoholic liver failure requires general anesthesia for surgery. Anaesthetic agent of choice is
a. ether
b. halothane
c. methoxyflurane
d. isoflurane
Ans. d

85. All of the followings are true regarding the pudendal nerve, except
a. sensory and motor
b. derived from S2,3,4
c. comes out through the lesser sciatic foramen
d. main nerve supply of pelvic organs
Ans. c

86. In the fracture of middle cranial fossa, absence of tears would be due to lesion in
a. trigeminal ganglion
b. ciliary ganglion
c. greater superficial petrosal nerve
d. cervical ganglion
Ans. c


87. Gettlers test is done for
a. death by drowning
b. hanging
c. burns
d. phosphorus poisoning
Ans. a

88. All of the following are true about coronary artery except-
a. right coronary in anterior interventricular groove
b. usually 3 obtuse margical artery arised from left coronary artery
c. in 85% cases posterior descending artery arises from right co. art.
d.
Ans. b

89 (ref. gray's) 19. Pivot test is for
a. anterior cruciate ligament
b. posterior cruciate ligament
c. medial meniscus injury
d. lateral meniscus injury
Ans. a

90. Babu, 19 yrs has small circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis of femur bone; diagnosis is
a. osteoclastoma
b. osteosarcoma
c. ewings sarcoma
d. osteoid osteoma
Ans. d

91. A patient had injury to the upper limb 3 yrs earlier, now he presents with paresthesia over the medial border of the hand and anaethesia over medial two finger. The injury is likely to have been:
a. supracondylar fracture
b. lateral condyle fracture humerus
c. medial condyle fracture humerus
d. posterior dislocation of the humerus
Ans. b

92. Most common site of osteosarcoma
a. femur, upper end
b. femur, lower end
c. tibia, lower end
d. fibula, lower end
Ans. b

93. A patient had injury on his shoulder. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, he develops weakness of flexion shoulder, lack of sensation over the lateral aspect forearm; nerve injured:
a. radial
b. musculocutaneous
c. axillary
d. ulnar
Ans. b

94. Basanti aged 61 years, falls from height. She comaplains lower limb extended, externally rotated, pain and inability to move lim
b. Most likely diagnosis is -
a. fracture neck femur
b. trochanteric femur fracture
c. posterior dislocation hip
d. anterior dislocation of hip
Ans. b ?

95. babloo, age 10 years, presents with fracture of humerus. Xray reveals a lytic lesion at the upper en
d. Likely condition is
a. unicameral bone cyst
b. osteosarcoma
c. giant cell tumour
d. osteo chondroma (?)
Ans. a

96. Triple arthrodesis foot involves
a. calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal
b. tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid and talocalcaneal
c. ankle joint , calcaneocuboid and talocalcaneal
d.
Ans. a

97. In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveals proliferative changes. Which Hormone should be prefered?
a. MDPA
b. Desogestrol
c. norethisteron
d.
Ans. c

98. patient complains of post coital bleed, no tumor seen per speculum, next step:
a. colposcopy biopsy
b. conisation
c. repeat pap smear
d. culdoscopy
Ans. a

99. In a post polio case, ilio-tibial tract contracture is likely to result in
a. extension at the hip and knee
b. extension at the hip
c. flexion at the hip and the knee
d. extension at the knee
Ans. ? (a/d)

100. Snow storm appearance is seen in USG
a. hydatidiform mole
b.
c.
d.
Ans. a

101. A pregnant diabetic on oral sulphonyl urea is shifted to insulin. All of the followings are true regarding this, EXCEPT a) sul. urea causes PIH b) insulin does not cross placenta c) oral hypoglycaemics crosses placenta and deplete foetal insulin d) during pregnancy insulin requirement increases and cannot be provided with sulphonyl ureas
Ans. a

102. All of the following are true regarding ticlopidine except
a. directly interacts with platelet membrane
b. onset of action is delayed
c. ecconaid dependent/independent ???
d.
Ans. ?

103. reason for reducing drug dosage in elderly
a. body water decreased
b. increased baroreceptor sensitivity
c. lean and thin mass
d.
Ans. b

104. true regarding adenomyosis:
a. more common in nullipara
b. progestins are not useful
c. presents with menrrhagia, dysmenorria, and enlarged uterus
d. more common in multipar
a.
Ans. c

105. drug containing two sulfhydryl groups in a molecule
a. BAL
b. EDTA
c. Penicillamine
d.
Ans. a

106. All of the following are true about apomorphine about selegiline except
a. apomrphine is used in on-off phenomenon
b. selegiline is a MAO-A inhibitor
c. used in parkinsonism
d. selegiline does not cause cheese reaction
Ans. b

107. True about inverse agonists?
a. attach to recetor and act in same direction
b. attach to recetor and act in opp. direction
c. inhibit the attachment of agonist
d.
Ans. b

108. Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala
a. robert's
b. naegele's
c.
d.
Ans. b

109. Force generating proteins are
a. myosin and myoglobin
b. dynein and kinesin
c. calmodelin and G protien
d. troponin
Ans. b

110. Protein involved in intercellular connections
a. connexin
b. integrin
c. adhesin
d.
Ans. a

111. Initiation of nerve impulse occurs at the axon hillock because
a. it has a lower threshold than the rest of the axon
b. it is unmyelinated
c. neuro transmitter are release at this place
d.
Ans. a

112. which of the following is a FALSE statement
a. iv N.
a. increases systolic and diasotlic BP and causes tachycardia
b. iv Adr increases systolic, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
c. iv isoproterenol causes no change in systolic, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
d. dopamine decreases peripheral resistance, improves renal perfusion
Ans. a

113.Which is true about measurement of BP with syphgnomonmeter
a. Less than intravascular pressure
b. More than intravascular pressure
c. Equal to IVP
d. Depend upon blood flow Ans a ?

114. All of following is correct regarding capillaries except
a. greatest surface area
b.
c. contains more blood than veins
d. have single layer of cells bounding the lumen Ans c

115. mechanism of action of tetracycline
a. binds to A site ribosome
b. inhibits peptidyl transferase
c. causes misreading of mRNA
d. causes termination of peptide chain elongation Ans a

116. single most important factor in control of automatic contractility of heart
a. end diastolic volune
b. right atrial volume
c. SA node pacemaker potential
d. symps. Stimulation
Ans. ?

117. All of the following are correct about alkylating agent except
a. folinic acid terminates the action of methotrexate
b.
c.
d. Ans a

118. albumin contributes the maximum to oncotic pressure because it has
a. high mol wt, low concentration
b. low mol wt, low conc
c. high mol wt, high conc
d. low mol wt, high con
c. Ans d

119. drug that is radioprotective
a. paclitaxel
b. vincristine c, amifostin
d. Etoposide Ans. c

120. tidal volume is calculated by
a. inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratory reserve volume
b. total lung capacity minus the reserve volume
c.
d. Ans. a

121. metalloproteins help in jaundice by what mechanism
a. increased glucoronyl transferase activity
b. inhibit heme oxygenase
c. decrease RBC lysis
d. increase Y and Z receptors Ans. b

122. beta blocker that can be used in renal failure
a. propranolol
b. pindolol
c. sotalol
d. oxyprenolol Ans. c

123. A 0.5 litre blood loss in 30 minutes will lead to
a. increase in HR, decrease in BP
b. slight increase in HR, normal BP
c. decrease in HR and BP
d. prominent increase in HR Ans. b

124. A patient present with waxy flexibility, negativitism and rigidity. Diagnosis is
a. Catatonic schizophrenia
b. paranoid schizophrenia
c. heb schizophrenia
d.
Ans. a

125. which of foll. NOT found in diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination
a. microaneurysms
b. retinal hemorrhages
c. arteriolar dilatation
d. neovascularisation Ans. c

126. with 20 permanent teeth and 8 temporary teeth, the age is likely to have been
a. 9 yrs
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
Ans. c

127. A case of bells palsy; no improvement after 2 weeks; what to do next
a. vasodilators and ACTH
b. physiotherapy and electrical stimulation
c. Increase steroid dosage
d. Electrophysiological nerve testing
Ans. b

128. Vitamin B12 deficiency is likely to cause
a. bitemporal hemianopia
b. binasal hemianopia
c. heteronymous hemianopia
d. centrocecal scotoma
Ans. d

129. Woman complains of coloured haloes around lights in evening, nausea and vomiting, with normal IOP. Diagnosis is
a. incipient stage glaucoma open angle
b. prodromal stage, closed angle glaucoma
c. migraine
d.
Ans. b

130. Facial nerve injury following head trauma; fracture of the mastoid present; intervention:
a. immediate decompression
b. wait and watch
c. facial sling
d.
Ans. a

131. A woman survives an road traffic accident. After she experiences intense fear while traveling; diagnosis is
a. PSTD
b. PTSD
c. DTSP
d. STD
Ans. b

132. Babu, age 40 years suffers sudden palpitations and apprehension. He is sweating lasting 10 minutes, with dooming of death. Diagnosis is
a. hysteria
b. cystic fibrosis
c. panic attack
d. generalized anxiety disorder
Ans. c

133. diabetic aged 40 has blackish nose discharge
a. mucormycosis
b. actinomycosis
c.
d.
Ans. a

134. A patient has meiotic pupil, IOP = 25,normal anterior chamber, hazy cornea with shallow anterior chamber of fellow eye. Diagnosis is
a. acute antr uveitis
b. acute angle closure glaucoma
c. acute open angle glaucoma
d. senile cataract
Ans. a

135. boy aged 15 has unilateral nasal blockade, mass in the cheek, epistaxis:
a. nasopharyngeal ca
b. angiofibroma
c. inverted papilloma
d.
Ans. b

136. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is
a. supraglottic ca
b. ca glottis
c. ca nasopharynx
d. subglottic ca
Ans. b

137. A 5 yrs child presents with large cornea, lacrimation and photophobi
a. Diagnosis is
a. megalocornea
b. congenital glaucoma
c. congenital cataract
d. anterior uveitis
Ans. b

138. eye deviated laterally and downwards, patient unable to look up or medially, likely nerve involved
a. trochlear
b. trigeminal
c. oculomotor
d. abducens
Ans. c

139. FALSE regarding hyperplastic tuberculosis of GI
a. mass RIF
b. Barium meal shows pulled up caecum
c. most common site is ileocecal
d. ATT alone can be used as rx
Ans. d

140. elderly male with heart disease has sudden loss of vision in one eye, examination reveals a cherry red spot; diagnosis
a. central retinal vein occlusion
b. central retinal artery occlusion
c. amaurosis fugax
d. acute ischemic optic neuritis
Ans. b

141. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen in all except
a. syphilis
b. lebers hereditary optic neuropathy / post neuritic ?
c. post papilledema optic neuritis
d. traumatic injury to the optic nerve
Ans. ?

142. patient presents with recurrent duodenal ulcer of 2.5 cm size; procedure of choice
a. truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
b. TV and GJ
c. highly selective vagotomy
d. Laparoscopic vagotomy and GJ
Ans. a

143. patient has neck swelling and respiratory distress 8 hours after a thyroidectomy surgery. Next mmg
a. open immediatly
b. Trecheostomy
c. wait and watch
d. oxygen by mask Ans. a ?

144. 56 year old woman has passed no stools for 14 days. Xray shows no air fluid levels. Probable diagnosis is
a. paralytic ileus
b. agangliionosis of the colon
c. intestinal pseudo obstruction
d. duodenal obs.
Ans. ? d/c

145. case of blunt trauma, in shock, not responding to IV crystalloids, next step:
a. immediate laparotomy
b. blood transfusion
c. albumin transfusion
d. abdominal compression
Ans. a

146. patient on same evening after thyroidectomy has swelling and difficulty breathing. Next mmg.
a. open immediatly
b. intubate oro tracheally
c. wait and watch
d. oxygen by mask
Ans. a ?

147. long standing case of multinodular goitre develops hoarseness and sudden increase in size. likely diagnosis is
a. follicular ca
b. papillary ca
c. medullary ca
d. anaplastic ca
Ans. a

148. A man aged 60 yrs has h/o IHD and atherosclerosis. He presents with abdominal pain and maroon stools:
a. acute intestinal obstruction
b. acute mesenteric ischemia
c. peritonitis
d. appendicitis
Ans. b

149. A 45 year old woman presents with hard and mobile lump is breast. Most confirmatory investigation is
a. FNAC
b. USG
c. Mammography
d. Excision biopsy
Ans. d

150. A neonate suspected to have congenital syphilis, diagnostic test to be done is
a. FTA ABS IgM
b. FTA-ABS IgG
c. TPI
d.
Ans. a

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