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1. Germ cells develop from
A. Endoderm B. Mesoderm
C. Ectoderm D. Ectodermal cleft
Ans is D (Ectodermal cleft)

2. In adults haematopoiesis mainly occurs in which of the fol¬lowing
A. Long bones B. Liver
C. Spleen D. Flat bones
Ans is D (Flat bones)

3. Supination pronation does not Occur at
A. Radiocarpal joint B. Superior radioulnar jOint
C. Middle radioun/ar joint D. Inferior radioulnar joint
Ans is A (Radiocarpal joint)

4. The wrist joints are grouped transversely into the radiocarpal and in¬tercarpal joints. The radiocarpal joint is composed of the distal articu¬lar surface of the radius and the proximal carpal row: scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum. The intercarpal joint consists of the proximal row and its articulation with the distal carpal row, composed of the scaphoid trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate. Supination pronation does not,occur at radiocarpal joint. Claw hand is seen in palsy of
A. Radial nerve B. Ulnar nerve
C. Median nerve D. Post interosseous nerve
Ans is B (Ulnar nerve)

5. True about posterior cruciate ligament
A. Intrasynovial ligament
B. Attached to lateral epicondyle of tibia
C. Prevents posterior displacement of tibia
D. Buckling of the posterior cruciate ligament is an indirect sign of meniscal tear.
Ans is C (Prevents posterior displacement of tibia)

6. Structure passing from thorax to abdomen behind the attach¬ment of diaphragm are all EXCEPT
A. Thoracic duct B. Aorta
C. Azygous vein D. Greater splanchnic nerve
Ans is D (Greater splanchnic nerve)

7. Not true regarding trigone of bladder
A. Lined by transitional epithelium
B. Mucosa is loosely attached to muscular coat
C. It develops by investing of mesonephric duct and urogenital sinus.
D. The mucosa is smooth.
Ans is B (Mucosa is loosely attached to muscular coat.)

8. All of the following structure CROSS from right to left EXCEPT
A. Left renal vein B. Left brachiocephalic vein
C. Left gonadal vein D. Hemiazygous vein
Ans is C (Left gonadal vein)

9. Posterior communicating artery is a branch of
A. Internal carotid artery B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Basilar artery D. Posterior cerebral artery
Ans is A (Internal carotid artery)

10. Cervical vertebral can be easily differentiated vertebral by
A. Large vertebral body 2} Presence of foramen transversorium
C. Presence of superior articular facet D. Wide vertebral canal from thoracic
Ans is B (Presence of foramen transversorium

11. During chewing the major burden is over
A. Maxillozygomatic arch B. Pterygozygomatic arch
C. Maxillopterygoid arch D. Zygomaticotemporal arch
Ans is C (Maxillopterygoid arch)

12. Branches of supraclinoid segment of internal carotid artery
A. Ophthalmic artery B. Medullary branches
C. Branches to pituitary D. Anterior cerebral artery
Ans is A (Ophthalmk artery)

13. Classically the Papez circuit of recent memory is related to
A. Subpulvinar nucleus B. Anterior thalamic nucleus
C. Venteromedial nucleus D. Pulvinar nucleus
Ans is B (Anterior thalamic nucleus)

14. Meralgia paresthetica affects
A. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh B. Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
C. Genitofemoral nerve D. Common femoral nerve
Ans is A (Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh)

15. Morgagni hernia is common through
A. Left anterior aspect of the diaphragm B. Right anterior aspect of the diaphragm
C. Right posterior aspect of the diaphragm D. Left posterior aspect of the diaphragm
Ans is B (Right anterior aspect of the diaphragm)


16. True regarding changes in heart at high altitude
A.  Wbrkload and  Duration
B.  Workload and  Duration
C.  Workload and  Duration
D.  Workload and  Duration
Ans is A  Wbrkload and  Duration

17. Regarding 4th heart sound true is
A. Heard during late ventricular filling
B. Correlates with aortic and pulmonary valve closure
C. They are never audible in normal subjects
D. Is a feature of right ventricular hypertrophy
Ans is A (Heard during late ventricular filling)

18. Coagulation factor present in serum as well as plasma
A. Factor II B. Factor V
C. Factor VII D. Factor VIII
Ans is C (Factor VII)

19. Short memory to long-term memory conversion is the func¬tion of
A. Hippocampus B. Amygdala
C. Fornices D. Cerebellum
Ans is A (Hippocampus)

20. Changes that occur in brain during learning and behaviour are all EXCEPT
A. Neuron multiplication
B. Greater volume of capillaries per nerve cell
C. Increased weight and thickness of the cerebral cortex
D. Higher amounts of astrocyte per neuron
Ans is 1 (Neuron multiplication)

21. Delta-waves on EEG are seen in
C. NREM - III D. Deep Sleep
Ans is D (Deep Sleep)

22. Not a steroid hormone receptor
A. Insulin receptor B. Thyroid hormone receptor
C. Retinoic acid receptor D. Vitamin D receptor
Ans is A (Insulin receptor)

23. True regarding small intestinal motility is all EXCEPT
A. Intestinal motility is increased by Ach. B. Intestinal motility is increased by CCK
C. Intestinal motility depends on its distention D. Intestinal motility is independent of nerve supply
Ans is D (Intestinal motility is independent of nerve supply)

24. Not secreted by kidneys
A. Angiotensin I B. Angiotensin II
C. Renin D. Erythropoietin
Ans is B (Angiotensin II)
25. Acid resistant enzyme in pancreatic juice
A. CCK B. Pepsin
C. Chitin D. Trypsin
Ans is B (Pepsin)

26. Marker for bone formation all except
A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Acid phosphatase
C. Osteocalcin D. Procollagen Type I
Ans is B (Acid phosphatase)


27. Not true regarding protoglycans
A. Contains small amount of water in them.
B. Present in cartilage, blood vessels and skin.
C. Can affect the activity and stability of proteins and signalling molecules within the matrix. .
D. Are also involved in binding cations (such as sodium, potass¬ium, and calcium) and water, and also regulating the movem¬ ent of molecules through the matrix.
Ans is A (Contains small amount of water in them)

28. Action of 2,4-dinitrophenol
A. Inhibition of cytochrome b
B. Blockade of both electron transport and ATP synthesis
C. Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation
D. Inhibition of electron transport but not ATP synthesis
Ans is C (Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation)

29. Biotin is used in treatment of
A. PKU B. Multiple carboxylase deficiency
C. Propionic acidamia D. Maple syrup urine disease
Ans is B (Multiple carboxylase deficiency).

30. Lac operon is example of which type of gene regulation?
A. Positive regulation B. Negative regulation
C. Both D. Activator
Ans is B (Negative regulation)

31. A two - year - old child with fair skin, blue eyes, hyperactivity, and occasional seizures, with urine turning green on ferric chloride test, the diagnosis is
A. Phenylketonuria B. Alkaptonuria
C. Multiple carboxylase deficiency D. Glutaric aciduria
Ans is A (Phenylketonuria)

32. Urine turns black on exposure to air in which of the following disease?
A. Cytinosis B. Alkaptonuria
C. Homocystinuria D. Maple syrup diseases
Ans is A (Alkaptonuria)

33. Protein separation can be done by
A. Centrifugation B. Electrophoresis
C. Chromatography D. Spectrometry
Ans is B (Electrophoresis)

34. The study of protein, particularly their structures and func¬tions is known as
A. Genomics B. Proteomics
C. Mass spectroscopy D. Bioinformatics
Ans is B (Proteomics)

35. In hypoxia glycolysis increases because
A. 2, 3 - DPG activity decreases B. 2, 3 - DPG activity increases
C. ATP formation decreases D. Glucose demand is less
Ans is B (2, 3 - DPG activity increases)

36. Incorrect regarding pentose phosphate pathway
A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is the committed step of the pentose phosphate pathway and it is regulated by avail¬ability of the substrate NADP+.
B. Pentose phosphate pathway serves as an entry into glycoly¬sis for both 5-carbon and 6-carbon sugars.
C. NADPH, a product of the pentose phosphate pathway, functi¬ons as a reductant in various synthetic (anabolic) pathways, including fatty acid synthesis.
D. It is active in non-lactating mammary glands and its activity is high in skeleton muscles.
Ans is D (It is active in non-lactating mammary glands and its activity is high in skeleton muscles.)

37. True regarding oxygenase in ETC
A. Helps to breakdown ATP using energy contained in high¬ energy electrons
B. Inhibits redox reaction
C. Breaks double bond at one time
D. Breaks single bond at one time
Ans is C (Breaks double bond at one time) (Ref: Harper’s Biochemistry)

38. Insulin increases glucose uptake in
A. Liver B. Brain
C. Muscles D. RBC
Ans is C (Muscles)

39. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum takes part in synthesis of
A. Lipids B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates D. Vitamins
Ans is A (Lipids)


40. Mediator of Type I hypersensitivity reaction
A. IgG B. IgA
C. IgE D. IgM
Ans is C (lgE)
41. Arthus reaction is hypersensitivity reaction
A. Type I B. Type II
C. Type III D. Type IV
Ans is C (Type III)

42. A 50 -year - old man has 80% lymphocytes and 20% neutrophils on peripheral smear, likely diagnosis is
Ans is D (CLL)

43. Which of the following does not predispose to AML?
A. Fanconi’s syndrome B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Turner’s syndrome D. Bloom’s syndrome
Ans is C (Turner’s syndrome)

44. Which is following is associated with autoimmune heamolytic anaemia?
A. T-cell chronic lymphatic leukaemia B. Hairy cell leukaemia
C. Pre B cell chronic lymphatic leukaemia D. B-cell chronic lymphatic leukaemia
Ans is D (B-cell chronic lymphatic leukaemia)

45. Nonspecific esterase is positive in all the following varieties of AML EXCEPT
A. M3 B. M4
C. M5 D. M6
Ans is D (M6)

46. Poor prognosis of ALL is associated with the following EXCEPT:
A. Female sex B. Age < 2 years C. t (8, 21) D. Hyperploidy Ans is A (Hyperploidy) 47. Glomerular patho
logy in patient with hepatitis C infection? A. Mesangioproliferative GN B. FSGN C. RPGN D. Cryoglobulinaemia Ans is D (Cryoglobulinaemia)

48. Bone marrow examination is absolutely necessary in diagno¬sis of A. Hairy cell leukaemia B. Acute leukaemic leukaemia C. Myelodysplastic syndrome D. CML Ans is C (Myelodysplastic syndrome)

49. Protein which coagulates on heating at 40-50°C and the co¬agulation resolves on heating at SO°C? A. Amyloid precursor protein B. Bence-jones protein C. Conjugated protein D. Heat shock protein Ans is B (Bence-Jones protein)

50. Marker of dialysis associated amyloidosis A. Transthyretin B. Beta2 microglobulin C. Amyloid associated protein D. Beta amyloid protein Ans is B (Beta2 microglobulin)

51. Investigation for diagnosis of systemic amyloidosis A. Rectal biopsy B. Bone marrow study C. Urine examination D. Electrophoresis Ans is A (Rectal biopsy)

52. Damage to basement membrane is mediated by A. Metalloproteinase B. Myeloperoxidase C. Superoxide dismutase D. Capsases Ans is A (Metalloproteinase)

53. Not a type of thyroid carcinoma A. Medullary cell carcinoma B. Merkel cell carcinoma C. Insular carcinoma D. Follicular carcinoma Ans is B (Merkel cell carcinoma) 54. Immune complex deposition in various organs. Diagnosis is A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. PAN C. Wegener’s granulomatosis D. Chrug strauss disease Ans is A (Systemic lupus erythematosus)

55. True statements regarding DIC are the following EXCEPT A. Platelet count is decreased in DIC B. Protamine paracoagulation test is positive in DIC C. Euglobin clot lysis test is abnormal in DIC. D. D-dimer assay is diagnostic of DIC Ans is C (Euglobin clot lysis test is abnormal in DIC)

56. Which of the following is immediate transient response of in¬ flammation? A. lymphocytosis B. Monocytosis C. Transient neutropenia D. Neutrophil infiltration Ans is C (Transient neutropenia)

59. In ALL, L3 means A. B cell All C. Pre BALL B. T cell All D. T cell Cll Ans is A (8 cell ALL) PHARMACOLOGY

60. Which of the following is a prod rug? A. Dipyridamole B. Aspirin C. Disopyramide D. Ticlopidine Ans is A (Dipyridamole)

61. Drugs used to treat obesity include all the following EXCEPT A. Neuropeptide Y B. Orlistat C. Butramine D. Acarbose Ans is A (Neuropeptide Y)

62. Against MRSA drugs useful are all the following EXCEPT A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Vancomycin D. Cefaclor Ans is A (Ciprofloxacin)

63. Drug which causes hypercoagulability? A. Vinblastin B. Busulfan C. Dacarbazin D. L-asparaginase Ans is B (L-asparaginase)

64. Orange coloured urine is produced by A. INH B. Streptomycin C. Ethionamide D. Rifampicin Ans is D (Rifampicin) 65. Leukotriene inhibitor used as anti-asthmatic drug is A. Zoluton B. Montelukast C. Budesonide D. Nedocromil Ans is A (Montelukast)

66. Best for of treatment for bronchial asthma in infants A. Zafirlukast B. Inhalational Beta2 agonists C. Oral theophylline D. Budesonide Ans is D (Inhalational Beta2 agonists)

67. True about heparin include all EXCEPT A. Secreted by mast cells B. Hypokalaemia is aproved side-effect C. Thrombocytopenia can occur D. Alopecia is known side-effect Ans is B (Hypokalaemia is aproved side effect)

68. Antiepileptic that can be used in pregnancy A. Phenytion B. Sodium valproate C. Phenobarbitone D. Carbmazepine Ans is C (Phenobarbitone) 69. All of the following act through Na+ channels except A. Phenytoin B. Carbamazepine C. Vigabatrin D. lomotrigine Ans is C (Vigabatrin)

70. Fastest and longest acting insulin A. Lisproinsulin B. Asphest C. Girgine D. Glargine Ans is D (Glargine) 71. A patient on ventilatory support is given atracurium, he de¬velops convulsions and coma after some days. The likely cause is A. Cerebral oedema B. Allergic reaction C. Ventilatory failure D. Laudanosine induced toxicity Ans is D (Laudanosine induced toxicity)

72. Non-selective beta-blocker having alpha blocking action in addition to action on beta-l & beta-2 blocking action are all EXCEPT A. Labetolol B. Carvedilol C. Betaxolol D. Esmolol Ans is C (Betaxolol)

73. A known side effect of beta2 agonist is A. Hypokalaemia B. Alopecia C. Impotency D. Hypercalcaemia Ans is A (Hypokalaemia)

74. Which of the following is wrong match? A. Sacrolimus -+ T cell proliferation B. Tacrolimus -+ IL2-Calcineurin inhibitor C. Mycophenolate -+ cGMP D. Cyclosporine -+ IL2 inhibitor. Ans is A (Sacrolimus -+ T cell proliferation)

75. Which of the following is not correct regarding clonidine? A. Acts as parasympathomimetic drug B. Prazosin can block its all action C. Is centrally-acting alpha-2 agonist D. Acts onpresynaptic receptors Ans is B (Prazosin can block its all action)

76. Nevirapine is A. Protease and fusion inhibitor B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors C. Nucleotide inhibitors reverse transcriptase inhibitors D. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors. Ans is D (Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)

77. Peripheral neuropathy in common side effect of A. Zidovudine B. Didanosine C. Seqvinavir D. Lamivudine Ans is B (Didanosine)

78. Glycoprotein lib-Ilia inhibitors include the following EXCEPT A. Abciximab B. Eptifibatide C. Tirofiban D. Clopidogrel Ans is D (Clopidogrel) 79. High dose methotrexate therapy is used for treatment of A. Liposarcoma B. Osteosarcoma C. Rhabdomy D. Lung carcinohla osarcoma Ans is B (Osteosarcoma)

80. The appropriate effect of corticosteroids on fetus when given to mother include A. Prevents respiratory distress syndrome B. Involutes thalamus C. Promotes growth D. Stimulates erythropoetin secretion Ans is A (Prevents respiratory distress syndrome)

81. Prostaglandin used in treatment of peptic ulcer disease A. Pg El B. Pg Ez C. Pg E3 D. Pg E4 Ans is A (Pg E1)

82. Drug used for ovulation induction A. Clomiphene citrate B. Danazol C. Tamoxifen D. OC pills Ans is A (Clomiphene citrate)

83. Which of the following is not used to reduce blood pressure during intraoperative period? A. Esmolol B. Procainamide C. Metoprolol D. Verapamil Ans is D (Procainamide)

84. All the following can be used to treat erectile dysfunction EX¬CEPT A. Phenylephrine B. Papaverine C. Tildenafil D. Apomorphine Ans is A (Phenylephrine)

85. Octreotide is known to cause which of the following side ef¬fects A. Diarrhoea B. Rectal bleeding C. Fever D. Blindness Ans is A (Diarrhoea)

86. Drugs used for H. pylori EXCEPT A. Bismuth B. Amoxicillin C. Oxytetracycline D. Omeprazole Ans is C (Oxytetracycline)

87. Naltrexone is used in treatment of A. Opioid withdrawal B. Opioid overdose C. Opioid dependence D. Ethanol toxicity Ans is C (Opioid dependence)

88. Which is not an alkylating agent? A. Busulfan B. Chlorombucil C. Cyclophosphamide D. Gemcitabine Ans is D (Gemcitabine

89. SIADH is side effect of A. Vincristine B. 5 - FU C. Methotrexate D. Bleomycin Ans is A (Vincristine)

90. Finasteride is A. GnRH analogue B. 5-alpha reductase inhibitor C. Selective estrogen receptor modulator D. Non-steroidal anti-androgenic drug Ans is B (5-alpha reductase inhibitor)

91. Hypomethylating agent is A. Azacitidine B. Cytosine arabinoside C. Homoharringtonine D. Anguidine Ans is A (Azacitidine)

92. Filgrastim is used in treatment of A. Neutropenia B. Filaria C. Malaria D. SIRS Ans is A (Neutropenia)

93. Nesiritide is A. Brain natriuretic peptide B. GH secretion stimulant C. Atrial natriuretic peptide D. Aldosterone inhibitor Ans is A (Brain natriuretic peptide)


94. Chlamydia psittacosis causes all, except A. Urethritis B. Cervicitis C. Pneumonia D. Inclusion conjunctivitis Ans is D (Inclusion conjunctivitis)

95. Northern blot test is used to detect A. mRNA B. DNA C. Proteins D. Antibody Ans is A (mRNA)

96. Which of the following statements about Lepromin test is not true? 1) It is negative in most children in first 6 months of life. 2) It is a diagnostic test. 3) It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease. 4) BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive. Ans is B (It is a diagnostic test)

97. Chronic burrowing ulcer is caused by A. Peptostreptococci B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Anaerobic streptococci D. Microaeroplic streptococci Ans is C (Anaerobic streptococci)

98. An infant had high-grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive show¬ing growth alpha-haemolytic colonies. On Gram staining these were gram-positive cocci. In the screening test for identifica¬tion, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent A. Bacitracin C. Optochin B. Novobiocin D. Oxacillin Ans is C (Optochin)

99. Most common organism causing meningitis in 1 year old child A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Neisseria meningitidis Ans is A (Haemophilus influenzae)

100. A patient admitted to an leu is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics, he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram-positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after two weeks of therapy. The most likely organism caus¬ing infection is (AIIMS 2006 May) A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Viridans streptococci C. Enterococcus faecalis D. Coagulase negative Staphylococcus Ans is C (Enterococcus faecalis)

101. A worker developed pustule on back of hand, it ulcerated and discharge was started from it. Which of the following would be the best staining material for this necrotic ulcer? A. Polychrome methylene blue B. Modified Kinyoun stain C. Cakafher white D. Carbolfuchsin Ans is A (Polychrome methylene blue)

102. Diagnostic test for a patient on treatment for H. pylori infec¬tion A. Urea-breath test B. Rapid urease test C. Gastric biopsy and Warthin-starry stain D. Stool antigen test Ans is A (Urea-breath test)

103. Botulinum toxin acts on all the following EXCEPT A. NMJ B. Peripheral nerves C. CNS D. Ganglions Ans is C (CNS) 104. A 37-year-old male presented with chest pain, high-grade fever, and dry cough. The gram-negative organism responsi¬ble for causing it which can be grown on BCYE agar is (AIIMS 2001) A. Legionella pneumophila B. Moraxella catarrhalis C. Borrelia burgdorferri D. Burkholderia cepacia Ans is A (Legionella pneumophila)

105. Brucella is transmitted by all the following routes except A. Transplacental B. Milk borne C. Person to person D. Inhalation Ans is C (Person to person) 106. Which toxin act through adenylate cyclase activity? (AIIMS 2005) A. Diphtheria pertusis B. Vibrio cholerae C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Salmonella typhi Ans is B (Vibrio cholerae)

107. Not true regarding V. cho/erae A. Grows in simple medium B. Nonhuman host are not known (environmental hosts not known) C. Requires human intestine to grow D. Nonhalophilic Ans is D (Nonhalophilic) 108. Regarding Vibro 0139 strain, untrue is A. Are pathogenic B. Vibrio 0137 can cause disease in distinguishable from Vibrio 01 C. Was first found in Chennai D. Has polysaccharide capsule Ans is C (Was first found in Chennai)

109. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis the following statements are true, EXCEPT (AIIMS-2006 May and Nov) A. B. fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples. B. B. fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole. C. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin. D. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are comm¬on in Bacteroides bacteraemia. Ans is D (Shock and dissemina,ted intravascular coagulation are com¬mon in Bacteroides bacteraemia)

110. All true about Chlamydia trachomatis EXCEPT A. Reticulate body divide by binary fission B. Elementary body is metabolically active C. Characterized by biphasic cycle D. Presents fusion with phagolysosome after being intracellular. Ans is B (Elementary body is metabolically active)

111. Which of the following attacks on (destroys) virus infected cell? A. Plasma cells B. NK cells C. T cells D. Macrophages Ans is B (NK cells)

112. Incineration is used for all the following EXCEPT A. Body fluids B. Sharp instrument C. Cotton dressing D. Solid wastes Ans is B (Sharp instrument)

113. Negri bodies are seen in A. Prion disease B. Cerebral malaria C. Rabies D. Cysticercosis Ans is C (Rabies) FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY

114. Acrodynia is seen in A. Phenol B. Load C. Mercury D. Arsenic Ans is C (Mercury)

115. Burtonian line seen in poisoning with A. Arsenic B. Lead C. Mercury D. Copper Ans is B (Lead)

116. Antidote for lead poisoning A. SAC B. Penicillamine C. Dimercaptosuccinic acid D. Ca EDTA Ans is D (Ca EDTA)

117. Spalding’s sign seen in A. Drowning B. Maceration C. Hanging D. Poisoning Ans is B (Maceration)

118. Site of action of mercury A. Loop of Henle B. PCT C. DCT D. Collecting ducts Ans is B (PCT)

119. Antidote for muscarine type of mushroom poisoning A. Steroids B. Amyl nitrate C. Atropine D. Physostigmine Ans is C (Atropine)

120. Most commonly abused agent in India: A. Cannabis indica B. Tobacco C. Heroine D. Amphetamine Ans is B (Tobacco)


121. Physical quality of life index (PQLI) consists of all EXCEPT (AI 2000; Maharashtra 2006, AIIMS 2006 May) A. Infant mortality B. Life expectancy C. Literacy D. Maternal mortality Ans is D (Maternal mortality)

122. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the differ¬ences in: A. Causes of death B. Numerators C. Age distributions D. Denominators Ans is C (Age distributions)

123. Sampling method used in assessing immunization status of children under immunization programme A. Systematic sampling B. Stratified sampling C. Group sampling D. Cluster sampling Ans is D (Cluster sampling)

124. Several studies have shown that 85% of cases of lung cancer are due to cigarette smoking. It is a measure of (AIIMS 2005 Nov) A. Incidence rate B. Relative risk C. Attributable risk D. Absolute risk Ans is C (Attributable risk)

125. The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trial is to (AI 2006) A. Facilitates double blinding B. Help ensure the study objects are representative of general population C. Ensure the groups are comparable on baseline characterist¬ics D. Reduce selection bias in allpcation to treatment Ans is D (Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment)

126. A study of groups was done which included checking blood pressure before and after treatment. This is which of the fol¬lowing studies? (AI 2000) A. Fisher ‘F’ test B. Student C. ANOVA D. Paired ‘t’ test Ans is D (Paired ‘t’ test)

127. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know (AIIMS 2006 May &. Nov) A. Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test B. Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test C. Incidence and prevalence of SLE D. Relative risk of SLE in this patient. Ans is A (Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each . test.)

128. True about the herd immunity for infectious diseases (AI 2005) A. It refers to protection afforded by protection immunization. B. It is likely to be more for infectious that do not have subclini¬ cal phase. C. It is never constant. D. It is not affected by the presence and distribution of alterative animal hosts. Ans is C (It is never constant.)

129. To agree the result of new test and the gold standard test (Statistical analysis can be best correlated between the two), best among the following would be A. Test of significance B. Regression C. Correlation D. Chi square test Ans is A (Test of significance)

130. A physician, after examining a group of patients of a certain disease, classifies the condition of each one as ‘normal’, ‘mild’, ‘moderate’ or ‘severe’. Which one of the following is the scale of measurement that is being adopted for classification of the disease condition? (AIIMS 98) A. Nominal B. Interval C. Ordinal D. Ratio Ans is C (Ordinal)

131. A patient is called obese if BMI is A. 20-30 B. >25
C. >30 D. >40
Ans is C (> 30)

132. Best indicator of chronic malnutrition
A. Weight for age B. Linear growth for age
C. Weight for height D. Arm circumference
Ans is B (Linear growth for age)
132. PUFA are maximum in
A. Corn oil B. Soya bean oil
C. Fish oil D. Coconut oil
Ans is B (Soya bean oil)
133. The most sensitive indicator for monitoring the impact of io¬dine deficiency disorders control programme is (AP 2004)
A. Goiter in age group of 12 to 18 years B. Urinary iodine levels among pregnant women
C. Neonatal hypothyroidism D. Iodine level in soil.
Ans is C (Neonatal hypothyroidism)
134. SAFE strategy include all the following EXCEPT
A. Screening B. Antibiotics
C. Face washing D. Environmental improvement
Ans is A (Screening)
135. All the following are done to prevent tetanus neonatorum EX¬CEPT:
A. Two TT doses to all pregnant women B. TT to all females in reproductive age group
C. TT to all newborns D. Injection penicillin to all neonate
Ans is D (Injection penicillin to all neonate)
136. In all of the following diseases chronic carriers are found except: (AIIMS 2006 Nov)
A. Measles B. Typhoid
C. Hepatitis B D. Cholera
Ans is A (Measles)
137. All vaccines are included in EPI except
Ans is D (MMR)
138. Rubella vaccine should be given to
A. All adolescent girls
B. All non-pregnant women
C. All pregnant women between the age of 15-45 years
D. All non-pregnant women between the age of 15-45 years
Ans is B (All adolescent girls)
139. Strain used for BCG vaccine (ICS 2006)
A. Edmonston Zagreb strain B. Oka strain
C. ‘Danish’ 131 D. RA27/3strain
Ans is B (‘Danish’ 131)
140. It is true regarding endemic typhus that (AIIMS 2006 May)
A. Man is the only reservoir of infection.
B. Flea is a vector of the disease.
C. The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic presenta¬tion.
D. Culture of the aetiological agent in tissue culture is diagnostic modality.
Ans is B (Flea is a vector of the disease)
141. Lice are not the vectors of: (AIIMS 2006 May)
A. Relapsing fever B. Q fever
C. Trench fever D. Epidemic typhus
Ans is B (Q fever)
142. According to RNTCP diagnosis of a suspected case of pulmo¬nary tuberculosis should be done by
A. Sputum microscopy B. Sputum culture
C. X-ray D. Antigen detection by PCR
Ans is A (Sputum microscopy)
143. Aryl group containing phosphorous compounds are the foll¬owings EXCEPT
A. Tik 20 B. Propoxur
C. Metformin D. Phenformin
Ans is A (Tik 20)
144. Most common inheritance pattern of Mitochondrial diseases:
Ans is B (AR)
145. If mother is carrier of autosomal recessive disease and fa¬ther is normal, but the child is affected by disease, what is the pathology?
A. Uniparental disomy B. Mosaicism
C. Anticipation D. Genomic imprinting
Ans is B (Mosaicism)
146. Differential diagnosis for pancytopenia with bone cellularity will include all the following EXCEPT
A. G6-PD deficiency B. Myelodysplasia
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria D. Megaloblastic anaemia marrow
Ans is A (G-6 PD deficiency)
147. Ham’s test is useful for detection of
A. Mannose binding protein B. Spectrin
C. Reduced complement D. GPI anchor
Ans is C (Reduced complement)
148. All are the features of raised ICT except
A. Blurring of vision B. Headache
C. Vagus involvement D. Bradycardia
Ans is C (Vagus involvement)
149. Which of the following defects is not present in spherocyto¬sis?
A. Ankyrin B. Glycophorin A
C. Palladin D. Anionic protein
Ans is C (Palladin)
150. Benedict’s syndrome is characterised by all EXCEPT
A. Oculomotor nerve palsy B. Contralateral tremors
C. Contralateral hemiplegia D. Red nucleus involvement
Ans is C (Contralateral hemiplegia)
151. Millard-Gubler syndrome consists of the following EXCEPT
A. Ipsilateral 5th cranial nerve palsy B. Ipsilateral 6th cranial nerve palsy
C. Ipsilateral 7th cranial nerve palsy D. Contralateral hemiplegia
Ans is A (Ipsilateral 5th cranial nerve palsy)
152. Antibody helpful in diagnosing drug induced Lupus
A. Anti-histone antibody B. Antf-ds DNA antibody
C. Anti-smooth muscle antibody D. Anti-centromere antibody
Ans is A (Anti-histone antibody)
153. Which of the following is least useful in diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
A. ESR B. Skeletal x-rays
C. Bone scan D. Serum electrophoresis
Ans is C (Bone scan)
154. Iron deficiency anaemia is characterized by
A.  TBC & - Ferritin B.  TBC &  Ferritin
C.  TBC & - Ferritin D.  TBC & Ferritin
Ans is B ( TBC &  Ferritin)
155. CSF findings suggestive of Tubercular meningitis include?
A. Proteins  Sugar  Lymphocytes  B. Proteins  Sugar  Lymphocytes 
C. Proteins  Sugar  Lymphocytes  D. Proteins  Sugar  Lymphocytes 
Ans is A (Proteins  Sugar  Lymphocytes )
156. A 48-year-old woman presents with a change in bowel habits and 12 kg weight loss despite preservation of appetite. Anti¬endomysia I antibodies are positive and she later on responds well to gluten-free diet. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Agammaglobulinaemiaa B. Celiac sprue
C. Lactose intolerance D. Whipple’s disease
Ans is B (Celiac sprue)
157. What will be the preferred treatment in a patient of acute anterior wall infarction with cardiogenic shock?
A. Angioplasty B. Thrombolysis
C. DC shock D. Intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation
Ans is D (Intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation)
158. A female presents with atrial fibrillation with mitral regurgi¬tation present with syncope, the likeliest cause is
A. Cerebral infarct B. Cerebral edema
C. Vagal shock D. Cardiac overload
Ans is A (Cerebral infarct)
159. All are seen in protein haemolysis EXCEPT
A. Reduced hepatoglobin B. Reduced hematoerit
C. Normal serum ferrition D. Reduced Myoglobin
Ans is D (Reduced Myoglobin)
160. All are causes of polycythaemia EXCEPT
A. Ca lung B. Ca pancreas
C. Ca stomach D. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
Ans is A (Ca lung)
161. Following is not autosomal dominant diseases
A. Huntington’s disease B. Marfan’s syndrome
C. Fabry’s disease D. Neurofibromatosis
Ans is C (Fabry’s disease)
162. Residual volume & TLC are decreased in
A. Bronchiolitis B. Asthma
C. Cystic bronchiectasis D. Sarcoidosis
Ans is D (Sarcoidosis)
163. Most common complication of measles?
A. Cranial nerve palsy B. Otitis media
C. Pneumonia D. SSPE
Ans is B (Otitis media)
164. PT of patient is 26 and that of control is 13. Which of the following is correct method to calculates INR
A. B. (26/13) 1.4
C. (26–13) 1.4 D. (26×13) 1.4
Ans is A
165. Aspirin therapy increases
Ans is A (BT)
166. Which of the following is a minor criterion for rheumatic dis¬ease?
A. Subcutaneous nodules B. Murmur
C. History of rheumatic fever D. Fever
Ans is D (Fever)
167. Drug of choice for treatment of shock in septicaemic shock
A. Phenylephrine B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine D. Isoprenaline
Ans is C (Epinephrine)
168. Fallot’s pentology in addition to triad of tetralogy include
Ans is A (ASD)
169. Fourth heart sound occurs due to
A. Atrial relaxation B. Atrial filling
C. Ventricular systole D. Ventricular filling
Ans is D (Ventricular filling)
170. Which does not occur in CCF?
A. Hypernatraemia B. Hypokalaemia
C. Tachycardia D. Hypomagnesaemia
Ans is A (Hypernatraemia)
171. Characteristic ECG feature of hypokalaemia?
A. Tenting of T waves B. Short ST segment
C. Short QTc interval D. Prolonged PR interval with T inversion
Ans is C (Short QTc interval)
172. Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults?
A. Minimal change disease B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Collagen vascular diseases D. Drug induced
Ans is B (Diabetes mellitus)
173. Wegener’s granulomatosis involves all the following EXCEPT
A. Oral mucosa B. Intestinal mucosa
C. Respiratory tract D. Ocular structures
Ans is B (Intestinal mucosa)
174. Hypophosphatemia occuse in all the following EXCEPT
A. Chronic alcoholism B. Diabetes ketoacidosis
C. Acute- Renal Failure D. Total Parenteral Nutrition
Ans is C (Acute Renal Failure)
175. Function of Broca’s area
A. Word formation B. Communication
C. Grammatical corrections D. Effortless speech
Ans is A (Word formation)
176. Features of Brown-Sequared syndrome are all EXCEPT
A. Contralateral dorsal column involvement B. Loss of temperature and pain on opposite side
C. Loss of touch on opposite side D. Loss of motor power on opposite side
Ans is A (Contralateral dorsal column involvement)
177. How will you monitor a 2 day-old neonate in NICU who is not on ventilatory support?
A. Impedance measurement B. Infrared CO2 measurement
C. Intranasal temperature measurement D. Chest movement observation
Ans is D (Chest movement observation)
178. Moro’s reflex is considered abnormal if it persists even after
A. 3 months B. 4 months
C. 5 months D. 6 months
Ans is D (6 months)
179. Which is the earliest milestone amongst the following?
A. Pincer grasp B. Creeping
C. Mirror gazing D. Crawling
Ans is C (Mirror gazing)
180. Neonatal reflex present at birth
A. Crossed extensor reflex B. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
C. Symmetric tonic neck reflex D. Rooting reflex
Ans is B (Asymmetric tonic neck reflex)
181. A child has developed mouthing but no stranger anxiety or no development of expressions or likes and dislikes. What is the likely age of the child?
A. 4 months B. 5 months
C. 6 months D. 7 months
Ans is B (5 months)
182. A 6 years old child with 50% IQ is able to
A. Ride bicycle B. Draw triangle
C. Read simple sentence D. Identify colour
Ans is D (Identify colour)
183. ‘Cat eye’ syndrome -is
A. Partial trisomy 13 B. Partial trisomy 18
C. Partial trisomy 21 D. Partial trisomy 22
Ans is D (Partial trisomy 22)
184. Differential growth in boys and girls is due to
A. Activin B. Inhibin
C. Foliculotoxin D. FSH
Ans is D (FSH)
185. If TGA found in fetus, mother should be screened for
A. Gestational hypertension B. Gestational diabetes
C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperemesis gravida rum
Ans is B (Gestational diabetes)
186. Heart is not involved in
A. Lowe’s disease B. Type II Glycogen disorder
C. Duchene’s Muscular dystrophy D. Frederick’s ataxia
Ans is A (Lowe’s disease)
187. A 3 years old child is poor in language development has poor concentration, no friends, plays only with himself, and has some delay in milestones. The likely diagnosis is
A. ADHD B. Autism
C. Specific learning disorder D. Normal for age
Ans is B (Autism)
188. Kawasaki disease is characterised by all EXCEPT
A. Pitting oedema B. Lymphadenopathy
C. Rash D. Fever
Ans is A (Pitting oedema)
189. Jitteriness and seizers are differentiated from each other by the following EXCEPT?
A. Autonomic disturbance B. Sensitivity to stimulus
C. Frequency of movements D. Abnormal gaze
Ans is B (Sensitivity to stimulus)
190. Which of the following enzymes is increased markedly in Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
A. Alkaline phosphatase B. ALT & AST
C. Glutamate dehydrogenase D. y-Glutamyl transpeptidase
Ans is C (Glutamate dehydrogenase)
191. Most common malignancy in children?
A. Leukaemia B. Lymphoma
C. Neuroblastoma D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
Ans is A (Leukaemia)
192. Which of the following tests should be done for evaluation of a neonate with bullous skin lesion and X-ray showing perios¬titis at long bones?
A. VORL B. PCR for tubercular DNA
C. Evaluation of mother D. ELISA
Ans is D (VORL)
193. A child has presented with eczematous dermatitis on exten¬sor aspects of extremities with severe itching. His mother has history of bronchial asthma. The likely diagnosis is
A. Acute eczematous reaction B. Scabies
C. Atopic dermatitis D. Infectious eczematoid dermatitis
Ans is C (Atopic dermatitis)
194. Regarding Pityriasis rosea true is
A. Self-limiting condition B. Chronic relapsing condition
C. Dermatophytic infection D. Common in neonates
Ans is A (Self-limiting condition)
195. Which of the following is not true about Mycosis fungoides?
A. It is the most common cutaneous lymphoma B. Pautrier abscess can occur
C. Diffuse erythroderma is common D. It often curable by therapy and has indolent course.
Ans is D (Often curable by therapy and has indolent course)
196. Leprosy affects all the following organs
A. Bone B. Liver
C. Ovary D. Nails
Ans is C (Ovary)
197. Best treatment for borderline tuberculoid leprosy with sev¬ere ulnar neuritis?
A. Multi drug therapy with chloroquine B. Multi drug therapy with steroids
C. Single drug therapy with thalidomide D. Single drug therapy only
Ans is B (Multi drug therapy with steroids)
198. Which of the following is TUBERCULIDE?
A. Lupus vulgaris B. Lupus scrofulaceum
C. Scrofuloderma D. Tuberculosis verruca cutis
Ans is B (Lupus scrofulaceum)
199. Delusion is disorder of (Maharashtra 2003)
A. Thought B. Insight
C. Perception D. Behaviour
Ans is A (Thought)
200. All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia, EXCEPT (DNB 2000)
A. Late onset B. Married
C. Negative symptoms D. Acute onset
Ans is C (Negative symptoms)
201. Drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
A. Imipramine B. Fluoxetine
C. Haloperidol D. Clozapine
Ans is B (Fluoxetine)
202. Commonest feature of alcohol withdrawal
A. Tremors B. Diarrhoea
C. Lacrimation D. Insomnia
Ans is A (Tremors)
203. Loosening of associations is an example of
A. Formal thought disorder B. Schneinderian first rank symptoms
C. Perseveration D. Concrete thinking
Ans is C (Perseveration)
204. Regarding congenital Torticollis all the following statements are true except
A. In 2/3rd cases a sternomastoid mass is palpable
B. If untreated can lead to plagiocephaly
C. About 80% undergo spontaneous resolution
D. Always associated with breech presentation
Ans is D (Always associated with breech presentation)
205. Regarding thyroid, true is all EXCEPT
A. More common in female than in males.
B. It compresses, displaces, and involves trachea and oesopha¬gus.
C. Is a slow growing tumour.
D. Histological differentiation from anaplastic carcinoma can be difficult.
Ans is B (It compresses, displaces, and involves trachea and oesopha¬gus)
206. True regarding gynecomastia is all EXCEPT
A. Surgery is primary treatment
B. Can occur in liver disorders
C. Is reversible after stopping the responsible drug
D. Drug induced gynecomastia need surgical excision.
Ans is D (Drug induced gynecomastia need surgical excision)
207. Most important prognostic factor in head injury
A. Glasgow coma scale B. CT scan head
C. Age of the patient D. Skull fracture
Ans is A (Glasgow coma scale)
208. Best abdominal incision for blunt trauma abdomen
A. Midline incision B. Paramedian incision
C. Transverse incision D. Incision according to organ involved
Ans is A (Midline incision)
209. Best approach for surgical repair of the injury to abdominal aorta above the level of renal artery involving superior me¬senteric artery, coeliac trunk, and the suprarenal branch
A. Right medial visceral rotation B. Left medial visceral rotation
C. Right lateral visceral rotation D. Left lateral visceral rotation
Ans is A (Right medial visceral rotation)
210. About stomach injury all the following statements are EXCEPT
A. Gastric injuries often result form penetrating trauma
B. During evaluation, nasogastric aspirate positive for blood al¬ways indicate an injury to the stomach.
C. Role of extravasation of gastric contents in genesis of post operative complications is closely related to the dynamics of the gastric flora.
D. Most penetrating injuries to stomachi are treated by means of debridement of the wound edges & primary Closure in layers.
Ans is B (During evaluation, nasogastric aspirate positive for blood always indicate an injury to the stomach)
211. Treatment of ZES?
A. Proton pump Inhibitor B. H2 receptor blocker
C. Antaacid therapy D. Partial gesterctomy
Ans is A (Proton pump Inhibitor)
212. Sites of portosystemic shunting are all EXCEPT
A. Liver B. Spleen
C. Rectum D. Oesophagus.
Ans is B (Spleen)
213. Which of the following is not premalignant?
A. Juvenile polyp
B. Hamartomatous polyps of Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome
C. Juvenile polyposis
D. Villous adenomas
Ans is A (Juvenile polyp)
214. Which of the following is not correct regarding pilonidal si¬nus?
A. Lining epithelium is stratified sqnamous
B. Recurrence is common, even though adequate excision is carried out.
C. Operation should be performed only when inflammation is controlled
D. Surgery is treatment of choice
Ans is None (All four options are true)
215. Most common neuroendocrine tumour of panaceas in MEN 11
A. Ins,ulinoma B. Somatostatinoma
C. Gastrinoma D. Vipoma
Ans is C (Gastrinoma)

216. In a 50-year-old male with history of carcinoma prostate, Best investigation for screening will be:
C. ORE & PSA D. T 1 T2 weighted MRI
Ans is C (ORE & PSA)

217. lnvestigations useful in patient with carcinoma of bladder include the following EXCEPT
A. IVP B. Ultrasonography
C. Urine PSA D. Urine cytology
Ans is C (Urine PSA)

218. A 60-year-old smoker presented with painless haematuria. Which of the following would be most useful step for evalua¬tion
C. Plain x-ray KUB D. Urine microscopy for malignant cells
Ans is A (USG KUB)

219. In urethral rupture above the level of perineal membrane, the urine collects in
A. Retropubic space B. Scrotum
C. Superficial pereneal pouch D. Anterior abdominal wall
Ans is A (Retropubic space)


220. Entrapment neuropathy occur in all EXCEPT
A. Median nerve B. Ulnar nerve
C. Femoral nerve D. Anterior tibial nerve
Ans is D (Anterior tibial nerve)
221. In patients with osteoarthritis of knee joint, pain due to stress occurs mainly in which muscle?
A. Quadriceps B. Gastrocnemius
C. Quadriceps and Hamstring D. Hamstrings
Ans is A (Quadriceps)

222. Tubular cast used at
A. Shoulder B. Knee
C. Hip D. Spine
Ans is B (Knee)

223. In physiotherapy we use heat, deep or superficial. Which of the following is not deep heating modality?
A. Short wake diathermy B. Long wave diathermy
C. High frequency ultrasound D. Microwave
Ans is B (Long wave diathermy)

224. Which of the following is not to be done in osteosarcoma?
A. Bone marrow biopsy B. Bone scan
C. Chest X-ray D. X-ray of bones
Ans is A (Bone marrow biopsy)
225. The most common mechanism of injury to cervical spine?
A. Flexion injury B. Extension injury
C. Rotational injury D. Compression injury
Ans is A (Flexion injury)
226. ‘Burst fracture’ of vertebra is most commonly caused by
A. Compression fracture B. Vertebral hemangioma
C. Tuberculosis D. Metastasis
Ans is A (Compression fracture)


227. Which of the following helps in uptake of vitamin C in lens?
A. Sodium B. Taurine
C. Choline D. Protein
Ans is A (Sodium)

228. Lamina cribrosa is absent in
A. Optic nerve dysplasia B. Morning glory syndrome
C. Nanopthamia D. Retinal degeneration
Ans is B (Morning glory syndrome)

229. Antioxidants in eye include following EXCEPT
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C D. Catalase
Ans is B (Vitamin B)
230. Cherry red spots on retina are all the following EXCEPT
A. GM1 gangliosidosis B. Krabe’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick’s disease D. Sandhoff’s disease
Ans is B (Krabe’s disease)

231. Chronic papilloedema is characterized by all the following EXCEPT
A. Axonal swelling B. Loss of axoplasm
C. Axonal death D. Atrophy of the retinal nerve fiber layer
Ans is A (Axonal swelling)
232. Least common cause of childhood blindness in India
A. Congenital dacrocystitis B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Malnutrition D. Glaucoma
Ans is A (Congenital dacrocystitis)

233. A young male patient complained of orbital mass with prop¬tosis which increases on forward bending. The swelling was compressible. There is no bruit or thrill. On USG, the lesion was retro-orbital and hypoechoic. The likely diagnosis is
A. Orbital varix B. Orbital encephalocele
C. Neurofibroma D. AV malformation
Ans is A (Orbital varix)

234. Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder of retina?
A. Bardet-Bied syndrome
B. Best disease
C. Gyrate atrophy (defective arentihine ketoacid amina transferse activity)
D. Bassen-Kornweg syndrome
Ans is B (Best disease)


235. Brown’s sign seen in
A. Otosclerosis B. Glomus tumour
C. Cholesteatoma D. Serous otitis media
Ans is B (Glomus tumour)

236. CSF rhinorrhoea most commonly occurs with the fracture of
A. Frontal sinus B. Ethmoid sinus
C. Sphenoid sinus D. Maxillary sinus
Ans is B (Ethmoid sinus)
237. True regarding traumatic facial nerve palsy is all EXCEPT
A. Usually occurs with transverse petrous temporal bone fractu¬re.
B. Usually occurs with longitudinal petrous temporal bone fract¬ture.
C. Post traumatic facial nerve palsy is always complete at the time of presentation.
D. Decompression of the canal can be useful treatment
Ans is B (Usually occurs. with longitudinal petrous temporal bone frac¬ture.)
238. Which of the following is earliest involved or affected by Acoustic neuroma?
A. 5th Cranial nerve B. 6th Cranial nerve
C. 7th Cranial nerve D. 10th Cranial nerve
Ans is A (5th Cranial nerve)

239. Rhinophyma is (AP 96)
A. Congenital deformity of nose B. Hypertrophy of sebaceous gland of nose
C. Hypertrophy of sweat gland of nose D. Infection of hair follicles of nose
Ans is B (Hypertrophy of sebaceous gland of nose)

240. A child has dyspnoea and stridor which decreases in lying down position, likely diagnosis is
A. Acute epiglottitis B. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
C. Retropharyngeal abscess D. Foreign body
Ans is B (Acute laryngotracheobronchitis)

241. Rhinolalia clausa is a feature of following EXCEPT
A. Nasal polyp B. Palatal palsy
C. Adenoid hypertrophy D. Nasopharyngeal mass
Ans is B (Palatal palsy)
242. Which one of the local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group?
A. Procaine B. Bupivacaine
C. Lignocaine D. Mepivacaine
Ans is A (Procaine)

243. A 10-year-old boy undergoing an ocular surgery is induced on thiopentone and suscamethonium. Ambulation 6 hours. postopertively developed pain in legs. What is reason?
A. Ocular condition B. Thiopentone toxicity
C. Suxamethonium D. Earlyambulation
Ans is C (Suxamethonium)

244. Epidural block can be carried out in patients with the follow¬ing EXCEPT
A. Aspirin B. Heparin
C. Warfarin D. EACA
Ans is D (Epilson Aminocaproic acid)
245. Which of the following is contraindicated in infants as pre¬operative anaesthetic agent?
A. Morphine B. Atropine
C. Paracetamol D. Metoclopramide
Ans is A (Morphine)

246. True about acute oxygen toxicity is the following EXCEPT
A. Reduced cerebral blood flow can occur with oxygen toxicity
B. It can cause convulsions and coma.
C. It can be life threatening.
D. Blindness is known complication.
Ans is D (Blindness is known complication)


247. Best investigation for detection of temporal bone fracture
A. Clinical examination B. X-ray
C. CT scan D. MRI
Ans is C (CT scan)
248. On TVS, normal cervix is
A. T-shaped B. V-shaped
C. U-shaped D. a-shaped
Ans is B (Y-shaped)

249. Secondary curve of spine with concavity posteriorly is
A. Cervical B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar D. Sacral
Ans is A (Cervical)

250. Radioctive iodine used in radioimmunoassay
A. 1-123 B. 1-125
C. 1-131 D. 1-133
Ans is B (1-125)
251. Bohler’s angle is lost in fracture of
A. Talus B. Femoral neck
C. Calcaneum D. Tibial plateau
Ans is A (Talus)

252. Epiphyseal bone tumour:
A. Osteosarcoma B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Osteoclastoma D. Enchondroma
Ans is C (Osteoclastoma)
253. Pulsatile bone tumour
A. Osteosarcoma B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Giant cell tumour D. Ewing sarcoma
Ans is C (Giant cell tumour)

254. Aneuploidy in first trimester can be best diagnosed by
A. Nuchal translucency at 14 weeks B. CRL
C. Amniotic fluid volume D. B-HCG
Ans is A (Nuchal translucency)

255. Colour doppler finding suggestive of impending fetal death in IUGR
1) Reduced systolic flow in umbilical artery
2) Reduced diastolic flow in umbilical artery
3) Diastolic notch in uterine artery
4) Reversal of flow in umbilical artery
Ans is D (Reversal of flow in umbilical artery)

256. A child has pain in the right thigh since 1-2’months. X - ray of his thigh reveals a osteolytic metadiaphyseallesion of femur with ‘sunray’ appearance and Codman’s triangle. This is di¬agnostic of
A. Ewing’s sarcoma B. Osteosarcoma
C. Chondrosarcoma D. Giant cell tumour
Ans is B (Osteosarcoma)

257. A neonate developed CCF at birth. He had bruit on ausculta¬tion at AF. Through the open AF cranIal ultrasonography was done which revealed a well-defined round to oval midline hypoechoic lesion in between the lateral ventricles. The CCF was not responding to treatment. Likely diagnosis is
A. Arachnoid cyst B. Teratoma
C. Vein of Galen malformation D. Choroid plexus tumour
Ans is C (Vein of Galen malformation)

258. A young male was brought to emergency department in un¬conscious state with historY of head injury. CT scan head re¬vealed small multiple haemorrhages in both cerebral hemi¬spheres with compressed basilar cisterns. No midline shift. The likely diagnosis is
A. Diffuse axonal injury B. Cerebral contusion
C. Cerebral laceration D. Multiple infarcts
Ans is A (Diffuse axonal injury)

259. A middle aged female had progressive paraplegia and uri¬nary retention. CEMRI revealed an enhancing iso to hyperintense extramedullary intradural mass. The spinal cord was displaced and compressed. The likely diagnosis is
A. Teratoma B. Ependymoma
C. Meningioma D. Dermoid
Ans is C (Meningioma)


260. An ovarian cyst detected, postmortem should be operated
A. Immediately B. After 2 wks
C. After 6 wks D. After 8 wks
 Ans is A (Immediately)

261. Most common type of HPV associated with carcinoma of cer¬vix
A. 16 C. 31
B. 18 D. 33
Ans is A (16)

262. Most common persistent form of gestational trophoblastic disease:
A. Hydatidiform mole B. Partial mole
C. Invasive mole D. Choriocarcinoma
Ans is C (Invasive Mole)

263. GTD metastases occur most commonly to
A. Brain B. Lungs
C. Bone D. Liver
Ans is B (Lungs)

264. Hypothyroidism is pregnancy can result in all the following EXCEPT
A. Recurrent abortion B. PIH
C. Polyhydramnios D. Prematurity
Ans is C (Polyhydramnios)

265. Uterine prolapse is prevented by all the following EXCEPT (AIIMS 92)
A. Broad ligament of uterus B. Levator ani muscle
C. Uterosacral ligament D. Transcervical ligament
Ans is A (Broad ligament of uterus)

266. Nulliparous cervix is
A. Round B. Tubular
C. Transverse D. Longitudinal
Ans is B (Tubular)

267. Maximum cardiac overload is in which of the following peri¬ods of pregnancy?
A. First trimester B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester D. Immediate postpartum period
Ans is B (Second trimester)

268. Common symptoms associated with uterine myomas include all the following EXCEPT (Delhi 93)
A. Amenorrhoea B. Menorrhagia
C. Pelvic mass D. Infertility
Ans is B (Menorrhagia)

269. Contraindication to extend cephalic version
A. PIH B. Flexed breech
C. Primigravida D. Oligohydramnios
Ans is A (PIH)

270. 0C pills have protective effect against all the following ex¬cept
A. Ca breast B. Benign breast disorders
C. Ca endometrium D. Endometriosis
Ans is A (Carcinoma breast)

271. Most commonly removed/rejected part of loop in limbecolmy includes
A. Intramural part B. Isthmus
C. Ampulla D. Fimbrial end
Ans is B (Isthmus)

272. Most common anomaly in infant of diabetic mother
A. Sacral agenesis B. TGA
C. Anencephaly D. PUJ obstruction
Ans is A (Sacral agenesis)
273. Most common ovarian tumour to undergo torsion
A. Dermoid B. Cystadenocarcinoma
C. Fibroma D. Brenner’s tumour
Ans is A (Dermoid)

274. Most common ovarian tumour amongst the following?
A. Dermoid cyst B. Cu 380
C. Dysgerminoma D. Germ Cell tumour
Ans is B (Cu 380)

275. Which of the following has half life of 10 years?
A. Cu T 200 B. Cu 380 A
C. Lippes loop D. LNG - IUD
Ans is B (Cu 380 A)

276. Which of the following is not correct regarding IUCD?
A. Failure rate of lipes loop & Cu is same
B. They act by causing non-specific inflammatory reaction and lysosomal disintegration
C. Cu T 380 A is not 3rd generation IUCD.
D. Cu T 380 A has half life of 10 years
Ans is C (Cu T 380 A is not 3rd generation IUCD)

277. Haemorrhage in most common in
A. Carcinoma cervix B. Carcinoma endometrium
C. Vaginal carcinoma D. Ovarian cancer
Ans is A (Carcinoma cervix)

278. Maximum chances of HBV transmission to fetus is during?
A. 1st trimester pregnancy B. 2nd trimester pregnancy
C. 3rd trimester pregnancy D. During delivery
Ans is A (1st trimester pregnancy)

279. Which of the following is a procedure used for extracting sperm for fertilization in artificial insemination of donor?
Ans is B (TESA)

280. The risk of Asherman syndrome is the heighest if Dilatation and Curettage is doen for the following condition:
A. Medical termiantion pregnancy. B. Missed abortion.
C. Dysfunctionl uterine bleeding. D. Post partum haemorrhage.
Ans is A (Medical termiantion pregnancy)

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