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1. In case of IVC obstruction, the collaterals open through all the following EXCEPT (AI 2003)
A. Superior epigastric and inferior epigastric vein
B. Posterior Intercostal and iliolumbar vein
C. Azygous vein and internal thoracic
D. Lateral thoracic and superior circumflex iliac veins
Ans is B (Posterior intercostal and iliolumbar vein)
2. True about posterior cruciate ligament
A. Intrasynovial
B. Attached to lateral epicondyle of tibia
C. Prevents posterior displacement of tibia

D. Buckling of the posterior cruciate ligament is an indirect sign of meniscal tear
Ans is C (Prevents post displacement of tibia)
3. Structure passing from thorax to abdomen behind the attach¬ment of diaphragm are all EXCEPT
A. Thoracic duct B. Aorta
C. Azygous vein D. Greater splanchnic nerve
Ans is D (Greater splanchnic nerve)
4. Not true regarding trigone of bladder
A. Lined by transitional epithelium
B. Mucosa is loosely attached to muscular coat.
C. It develops by-investing of mesonephric duct and urogenital sinus.
D. The mucosa is smooth.
Ans is B (Mucosa is loosely attached to muscular coat.)
5. Morgagni hernia is common through
A. Left anterior aspect of the diaphragm B. Right anterior of the diaphragm
C. Right posterior of the diaphragm D. Left posterior of the diaphragm
Ans is B (Right anterior of the diaphragm)
6. Common peroneal nerve is related to
A. Neck of fibula B. Shaft of fibula
C. Medial tibial condyle D. Posteromedial aspect of proximal tibial shaft
Ans is A (Neck of fibula)
7. Supination pronation does not occur at
A. Radiocarpal joint B. Superior radioulnar joint
C. Middle radiounlar joint D. Inferior radioulnar joint
Ans is A (Radiocarpal joint)
8. Which is not rue about oculomotor nerve?
A. It is parasympathetic.
B. Passes through inferior orbital fissure
C. In case of palsy, there is lateral deviation of eye
D. The paired oculomotor nerves exit from the caudal aspect of the interpeduncular fossa.
Ans is B (Passes through inferior orbital fissure)
10. Meralgia paresthetica affects
A. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh B. Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
C. Genitofemoral nerve D. Common femoral nerve
Ans is A (Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh)
11. Goigi tendon organ functions for
A. Dynamic length B. Static length
C. Muscle tension D. Stimulates the motor neurons of the same.
Ans is C (Muscle tension)
12. Continuous stimulation at low threshold leads to increase in threshold for action potential. This is called as
A. Adaptation B. Accommodation
C. Resistance D. Initiation
Ans is A (Adaptation)
13. Noradrenaline, adrenaline, dopamine, and serotonin receptor belong to which family?
A. 7 pass receptor B. 2 pass receptor
C. 5 pass receptor D. Ligand gated
Ans is A (7 Pass receptor)
14. Difference between pulmonary and systemic circulations
A. Resistance is more than that in systemic circulation
B. Vasoconstriction in response to hypoxia
C. BP is more in pulmonary circulation
D. Flow velocity is more in pulmonary circulation
Ans is B (Vasoconstriction in response to hypoxia)
15. Which of the following statements is true for high altitude pul¬monary oedema?
A. It occurs in non-acclimatized individuals.
B. It reduces after exercise.
C. It is associated with pulmonary hypertension.
D. It is more likely to occur above the height of 3000 m.
Ans is C & 4 (It is more likely to occur above the height of 3000 m) & 3 (It is associated palm hypertension)
16. Turbulence occurs with
A. Low viscosity of blood B. Reynold’s number < 1000
C. Increase is radius of vessel D. Decrease in flow rate.
Ans is 1 (Low viscosity of blood).
17. Mean arterial blood pressure
A. Heart rate × Total peripheral resistance B.
C. Diastolic BP + Pulse pressure D. Systolic + Diastolic pressure
Ans is B
18. Most efficient method of glomerular clearance estimation
A. Jaffey’s B. Kinetic Jaffey’s
C. Technician D. Enzymatic
Ans is B (Kinetic Jaffey’s)
19. Inhypothermia all are seen except
A. Cardiac arrhythmias B. Decreased peripheral vascular resistance
C. Reversible coagulation defect D. Renal function abnormality
Ans is B (Decreased peripheral vascular resistance)
20. Filtration at arterial end of capillary is dependent on
A. Low capillary hydrostatic pressure B. Low capillary oncotic pressure
C. Low interstitial oncotic pressure D. Low atmospheric pressure
Ans is B (Low capillary oncotic pressure)
21. In Schwartz formula for GFR estimation, constant Kf is inde¬ pendent, of
A. Age B. Body mass
C. Method of estimation of creatinine clearance D. Renal functions
Ans is C (Method of estimation of creatinine clearance)
22. About chymotrypsinogen, true is
A. It is zymogen. B. It is carboxypeptidase.
C. It causes clot lysis. D. It is activated by enterokinase.
Ans is A (It is zymogen)
23. Steroid regulatory protein mediate the act by binding at
A. Leucine zipper motif B. Zinc finger motif
C. Helix turn helix motif D. Histone helix motif
Ans is B (Zinc Finger motif)
24. When one AA cod codes for more than one AA (JIPMER 2003)
A. Degeneracy B. Frame - Shift mutation
C. Mutation D. Transcription
Ans is A (Degeneracy)
25. Most common defect in beta-thalassaemia
A. Single base mutation B. Inversion
C. 3.7 deletion D. 619 bp. Mutation
Ans is D (619 bp. Mutation)
26. Eicosapentanoic acid is maximum in
A. Corn oil B. Soya bean oil
C. Fish oil D. Coconut oil
Ans is C (Fish oil)
27. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum takes part in synthesis of
A. Lipids B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates D. Vitamins
Ans is A (Lipids)
28. IN PUFA omega -3 fatty chains causes
A. Total cholesterol  & LDL  B.  Total  LDL
C.  Total  LDL D.  LDL  Total
Ans is A (Total cholesterol  & LDL )
29. Hyaluronic acid occurs maximally at (DNB 19B9)
A. Outer layer epidermis B. Vitreous humour
C. Retina D. Cornea
Ans is B (Vitreous humour)
30. Sample for blood glucose estimation pressured while sending it from PHC to Civil Hospital
A. Sodium fluoride B. Citrate
C. EDTA D. Heparin
Ans is A (Sodium fluoride)
31. 40 mm gap between two fibers of tropocollagen help in main¬ taining bone structure is filled by
A. Fe++ B. Hydroxyapatite
C. Carbohydrate D. Calcium
Ans is D (Calcium)
32. Which substance in breast milk helps in brain development in a child?
A. Docosahexanoic acid B. Linolenic acid
C. Linoleic acid D. Arachidonic acid
Ans is A (Docosahexanoic acid)
33. Apolipoprotein A predisposes to
A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Liver cirrhosis
C. Atherosclerosis D. Hypertension.
Ans is C (Atherosclerosis)
34. Antiapoptotic molecule: (AI 2002)
A. Bel - X B. Brax
C. Box D. Ras
Ans is A (Bcl - X)
35. Cytosolic cytochrome ‘c’ takes part in
A. Apoptosis B. Necrosis
C. Electron transport D. Cell development
Ans is A (Apoptosis)
36. Indicator of irreversible cell injury on electron microscopy (AI 2000)
A. Amorphous densities in mitochondria B. Swelling of ER
C. Detachment of ribosomes D. Swelling of cell membrane
Ans is A Amorphous densities in mitochondria
37. Beta-pleated sheet configuration of amyloid is seen in (Kerala 94)
A. Plain polarised right B. X-ray crystallography
C. Staining with Congo red D. Electron microscopy
Ans is B (X-ray crystallography)
38. In case of acute inflammation endothelial retraction due to cytoskeletal reorganization results in (Orrisa 98)
A. Immediate and transient increase in permeability
B. Immediate and prolonged increase in permeability
C. Delayed and transient increase in permeability
D. Delayed and prolonged increase in permeability
Ans is A (Immediate and transient increase in permeability)
39. Free radical injury is associated with deposition of
A. Melanin B. Lipofuschin
C. Bilirubin D. Haemosiderin
Ans is B (Lipofuschin)
40. A C-C type of chemokine
A. IL-8 B. Eotaxin
C. Lymphotactin D. Fractalkine.
Ans is B (Eotaxin)
41. Spherocytes on peripheral smear are diagnosed by (PGI 98)
A. Osmotic fragility test B. Coomb’s test
C. Ham’s test D. Russell viper venoJJ}-test
Ans is A (Osmotic fragility test)
42. Acid phosphatase is the maker for
A. B-cell B. Neutrophil
C. T-cell D. Monocyte
Ans is D (Monocyte)
43. Adult cells cannot proliferate like fetal cells because
A. Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor (CDK inhibitor) act at ‘5’ phase to prevent proliferation of adult cell.
B. In fetal cells, protease is absent for degrading CDK.
C. Cell cycle arrest in adults in response to DNA damage is more.
D. Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors block the cell cycle witho¬ut binding to cyclin-CDK complexes.
Ans is A (Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors act at ‘5’ phase to pre¬vent proliferation of adult cells)
44. Which NSAID undergoes enterohepatic circulation?
A. Aspirin B. Phenylbutazone
C. Piroxicam D. Ibuprofen
Ans is C (Piroxicam)
45. Drugs undergoing acetylation include except
A. Dapsone B. Metoclopramide
C. Procainamide D. INH
Ans is B (Metoclopramide)
46. Loading dose depends on
A. Half life B. Plasma volume
C. Volume of distribution D. Rate of clearance
Ans is C (Volume of distribution)
47. Which of the following is a prodrug? (Maharashtra Super Speciality Entrance Test 2005)
A. Clonidine B. Enalapril
C. Salmeterol D. Acetazolamide
Ans is B (Enalapril)
48. Long acting B2 sympathomimetic
A. Salmeterol B. Orciprenaline
C. Penoterol D. Pexbaterol
Ans is A (Salmeterol)
49. All are 2nd generation antihistaminic except
A. Atavastin B. Cyclizine
C. Fexofenadine D. Loratidine
Ans is B (Cyclizine)
50. All are atypical anti-psychotic agents EXCEPT
A. Thioridazone B. Risperidone
C. Olanzapine D. Clozapine
Ans is A (Thioridazone)
51. Drugs used for H. pylori except
A. Bismuth B. Amoxicillin
C. Mosapride D. Clarithromycin
Ans is C (Mosapride)
52. Benzodiazepine antagonist (Maharashtra Superspeciality Entrance Test 2005)
A. Flumazenil B. Fentanyl
C. Fomepizole D. Flurazepam
Ans is A (Flumazenil)
53. Against MRSA drugs useful are all the following EXCEPT
A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Vancomycin D. Cefaclor
Ans is A (Ciprofloxacin)
54. Which anti-TB drug can cause transient memory loss?
A. Ethionamide B. INH
C. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide
Ans is B (INH)
55. Anti-TB drug contraindicated in pregnancy (PGI 2000 Dec)
A. Streptomycin B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide D. INH
Ans is A (Streptomycin)
56. Antiarrhythmic that does not belong to class IC
A. Propafenone B. Flecainide
C. Tocainide D. Encainide
Ans is C (Tocainide)
57. Naltrexone is used in treatment of
A. Opioid withdrawal B. Opioid overdose
C. Used to prevent relapse D. Opioid dependence
Ans is D (Opioid dependence)
58. Drug used in management of long-term opioid dependence
A. Methadone B. Fentanyl
C. Pethidine D. Naloxone
Ans is A (Methadone)
59. HIV transmission from mother to fetus can be prevented by
A. Nevirapine B. Stavudine
C. Lamivudine D. Abacavir
Ans is A (Nevirapine)
60. Which drug acts by inhibiting cell wall? (AI 2006)
A. Cefepime B. Tetracycline
C. Erythromycin D. Ciprofloxacin
Ans is A (Cefepime)
61. If the creatinine clearance is 10 mL/hr, duration of action of which of the following drugs will be prolonged?
A. Amphotericin-B B. Amikacin .
C. Rifampicin D. Vanomycin
Ans is B (Amikacin)
62. Drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures
A. Valproate B. Gabapentin
C. Vigabatrin D. Lomotrigine
Ans is A (Valproate)
63. NK cells kill virus-infected cells with
A. Self MHC-I expression B. Absence of MHC-I expression
C. Presence of MHC-II expression D. Absence of MHC-II expression
Ans is B (Absence of MHC-I expression)
64. The mechanism of phagocytosis of bacteria infected cells by N K cells is
A. Peforin mediated B. Granygyme
C. Gas ligand eath domain D. Nf-kb transcription - releasecytokine.
Ans is D (Nf-kb transcription - releasecytokine)
65. A patient having urethral discharge and pus cells without or¬ganisms on microscopy. Culture study for this patient should be done on
A. McCoy cell culture B. Thayer Martin agqr
C. Lowenstein Jensen media D. Corn meal agar
Ans is A (McCoy cell culture)
66. All true about Chlamydia trachomatis except
A. Reticulate body divide by binary fission
B. Elementary body is metabolically active
C. Characterized by biphasic cycle
D. Presents fusion with phagolysosome after being intracellular.
Ans is B (Elementary body is metabolically active.)
67. A 37-year-old male presented with chest pain, high-grade fe¬ver, and dry cough. The gram-negative ‘organism responsible for causing it which can be grown on BCYE agar is (AIIMS 2001)
A. Legionella pneumophila B. Moraxella catarrhalis
C. Borrelia burgdorferri D. Burkholderia cepacia
Ans is A (Legionella pneumophila)
68. Brucella transmitted by all the following routes except
A. Transplacental B. Milk borne
C. Person to person D. Inhalation
Ans is C (Person to person)
69. Which toxin act through adenylate cyclase activity? (AIIMS 2005)
A. Diphtheria pertusis B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Salmonella typhi
Ans is B (Vibrio cholera)
70. A worker developed pustule on back of hand, it ulcerated and discharge was started from it. Which of the following would be the best staining material for this necrotic ulcer?
A. Polychrome methylene blue B. Modified Kinyoun stain
C. Cakafher white D. Carbolfuchsin
Ans is A (Polychrome methylene blue)
71. SYBR green stain is used for
A. PCR B. Elisa
C. Immunofluorescence D. H PLC
Ans is A (PCR)
72. A fungal stain used in tissue biopsy is
A. PAS B. Alizarin red
C. LPCB D. Masson trichrome
Ans is A (PAS)
73. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis the following statements are true, EXCEPT (AIIMS 2006 May)
A. B. fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples.
B. B. fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole.
C. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin.
D. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are com¬mon in Bacteroides bacteraemia.
Ans is D (Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are com¬mon in Bacteroides bacteraemia)
74. Lice are not the vectors of (AIIMS 2006 May)
A. Relapsing fever B. Q fever
C. Trench fever D. Epidemic typhus
Ans is B (Q fever)
75. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics, he develops a spike of fever and his blood cul¬ture is positive for gram-positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after two weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is: (AIIMS 2006 May)
A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Viridans streptococci
C. Enterococcus faecalis D. Coagulase negative Staphylococcus.
Ans is C (Enterococcus faecalis)
76. Group A streptococci can be differentiated from other bacte¬ria by
1) Optochin sensitivity 2) Bacitracin susceptibility
3) Bile solubility 4) Catalase negativity
Ans is B (Bacitracin susceptibility)
77. True about culture media
A. Nutrient broth is basal media B. Chocolate agar is selective media
C. Solid medium is with addition of growth factors D. Agar adds nutrition to media
Ans is A (Nutrient broth is basal media)
78. In judicial hanging, the position of the knot on the neck is
A. At the nape of the neck B. Under the chin
C. Lateral aspect of neck D. Just beneath the angle of jaw
Ans is C (Lateral aspect of neck)
79. Brain sample is not preserved in which poisoning?
A. Organophosphorus B. Heavy metal
C. Alkaloids D. Volatile toxins
Ans is B (Heavy metal)
80. Malaria-like fever and chills are present in which poisoning?
A. Mercury B. Zinc
C. Red phosphorus D. Arsenic
Ans is B (Zinc)
81. Mode of action of abortion sticks in “criminal abortion” Zn, Cu, Mg, Ni, Hg &. lead are known to cause this
A. Separation of placenta B. Uterine contraction
C. Necrosis and infection of uterine walls D. Nerve stimulation of uterus
Ans is B (Contraction of uterus)
82. Sexual asphyxia is feature of:
A. Masochism B. Fetishism
C. Voyeurism D. Sadism
Ans is A (Masochism)
83. Active search for undetected disease in apparently healthy people is
A. Screening B. Surveillance
C. Case finding D. Sampling
Ans is A (Screening)
84. Which of the following is not true about a point source epi¬demic? (UP 2002, SGPGI 2002)
A. All the cases occur within a single incubation period of the disease
B. The epidemic curve rises rapidly and plateaus off
C. Cases keep occurring over a period of time
D. No secondary wave occurs
Ans is C (Cases keep occurring over a period of time)
85. Specificity means
A. True negativity C. False positivity
B. True positivity D. False negativity
Ans is A (True negativity)
86. Loss of anatomical psychological physiological function means (Maharashtra 2002)
A. Impairment B. Disability
C. Handicap D. Rehabilitation
Ans is A (Impairment)
87. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water? (AIIMS 2006 May)
A. Chlorometer B. Horrock’s apparatus
C. Berkefeld filter D. Double pot method
Ans is B (Horrock’s apparatus)
88. “Problem village” include all EXCEPT (JIPMER 1998; ESIS 2005; Maharashtra 2006, UPSC 2006, AIIMS 2006 Nov)
A. Where no water source in a distance of 1.6 km from commu¬nity.
B. Water is more than depth of 15 meters.
C. There is no excess of Na+, K+, f+ salts.
D. Risk of Guinea worm infection.
Ans is D (Risk of Guinea worm infection)
89. Newly applied test to 10 people repeatedly showed Hb value of standard and by calorimetry the true value was 10.2. What can be said about that newly applied test?
A. High reliability, low validity B. High reliability, high validity
C. Low reliability, low validity D. Low reliability, high validity
Ans is A (High reliability, low validity)
90. Physical quality of life index (PQLI) consists of all EXCEPT (AI 2000; Maharashtra 2006, AIIMS 2006 May)
A. Infant mortality B. Life expectancy
C. Literacy D. Maternal mortality
Ans is D (Maternal mortality)
91. Socialization of medicine means all EXCEPT (UPSC 99)
A. Prevents competition between practitioners and clients.
B. Provision of medical services supported by state government.
C. It is sufficient in itself for provision of health services.
D. Ensures social equity that is universally operated by profes¬ sional health services.
Ans is C (It is sufficient in itself for provision of health services)
92. Endemic ascites is caused by (Maharashtra Superspeciality Entrance Test 2005)
A. Aflatoxin B. Sanguinarine
C. Pyrazolidone D. Ergot alkaloid
Ans is C (Pyrazolidone)
93. Direct standardization is done for
A. Age distribution B. Sex distribution
C. Cause of death D. Age distribution
Ans is A (Age distribution)
94. According to RNTCP diagnosis of a suspected case of pulmo¬nary tuberculosis should be done by:
A. Sputum microscopy B. Sputum culture
C. X-ray D. Antigen detection by PCR
Ans is A (Sputum microscopy)
95. Study consisting of consumption of anti-asthma drugs and in¬crease in deaths due to asthma was done in UK from 1960 ¬1975. This from of study is
A. Case reference B. Cohort
C. Ecological D. Experimental
Ans is B (Cohort)
96. About ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) true is
A. Replaces anganwadi worker in ICDS program.
B. There is one ASHA worker per 1000 population.
C. From recent health policy of 2001, they are the part of social and sanitation management.
D. Involved in mental health programme.
Ans is B (There is one ASHA worker per 1000 population)
97. Best study for evaluation
A. Prospective cohort study B. Retrospective cohort study
C. Randomized double blind study D. Randomized single blind study
Ans is C (Randomized double blind study)
98. Bayer’s theorem is related to
A. Conditional probability B. Subjective probability
C. Elementary probability D. Risk factor
Ans is B (Subjective probability)
99. To agree the result of new test and the gold standard test (Statistical analysis can be best correlated between the two), best among the following would be
A. Test of significance B. Regression
C. Correlation D. Chi square test
Ans is A (Test of significance)
100. Chronic malnutrition is indicated by
A. Weight for age B. Height for age
C. Weight for height D. Body mass index
Ans is C (Weight for height)
101. Chronic malnutrition is indicated by
A. Weight for age B. Linear growth for age
C. Weight for height D. Arm circumference
Ans is B (Linear growth for age)
102. SAFE strategy include all the following EXCEPT (AI 2006)
A. Screening B. Antibiotics
C. Face washing D. Environmental improvement
Ans is A (Screening)
103. The most sensitive indicator for monitoring the impact of Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control Programme is (AP 2004)
A. Goiter in age group of 12 to 18 years B. Urinary iodine levels among pregnant women
C. Neonatal hypothyroidism D. Iodine level in soil.
Ans is C (Neonatal hypothyroidism)
104. Two different germ cells line in a single individual originating from more than one zygote is
A. Chimerism B. Mosaicism
C. Segregation D. Nonpenetrance
Ans is A (Chimerism)
105. Single gene defect with multiple effcts
A. Genetic heterogeneity B. Pleotropism
C. Penetrance D. Pseudopenetrance
Ans is B (Pleotropism)
106. Differential diagnosis for pancytopenia with bone marrow cellularity will include all the following except
A. G6PD deficiency B. Myelodysplasia
C. Paroxysmal Nocturnal haemoglobinuria D. Megaloblastic anaemia
Ans is A (G-6 PD deficiency)
107. Ham’s test is useful for the detection of
A. Mannose binding protein B. Spectrin
C. Reduced complement D. GPI anchor
Ans is C (Reduced complement)
108. Collagen type IV IX 5 chain helps in diagnosis of:
A. Thin basement membrane disease B. Alport syndrome
C. TIP D. Haemochromatosis
Ans is B (Alport syndrome)
109. True about malaria is all except
A. Gametocytes of plasmodium vivax appear after 4-5 days of appearance of asexual parasites in blood.
B. Gametocytes of plasmodium falciparum appear after 4-5 days of appearance of asexual parasites in blood in.
C. Initially less, but with time the gametocyte density increase and may exceed 1000/mm.
D. As the disease progresses the number of gametocytes show no change.
Ans is B (Gametocytes of Plasmodium Falciparum appear after 4-5 days of appearance of asexual parasites in blood in.)
110. A lS-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breasts are tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. She has bilateral inguinal masses. Uterus is found to be ab¬sent on further evaluation. The most likely diagnosis is (AI 2006)
A. Turner’s syndrome B. Mullerian agenesis
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome D. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Ans is D (Androgen insensitivity syndrome)
111. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with constrictive pericarditis?
A. Tuberculosis B. Staphylococcal infection
C. Post surgery D. Rheumatic fever
Ans is D (Rheumatic fever)
112. Serum C3 is persistently low in the following except (Manipal 97)
A. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
C. Lupus nephritis D. Glomerulonephritis related to bacterial endocarditis
Ans is A (Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis)
113. Steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome is associated with mu¬tation in which gene?
Ans is D (NPHS2)
114. Nephrotic range proteinuria occurs in
A. FSGN B. Nodular glomerulosclerosis
C. Membranous GN D. RPGN
Ans is A (FSGN)
115. In bilateral reflux nephropathy associated acute pyelonephri¬tis, which of the following microscopic findings can be seen?
A. FSGN B. Proliferation with crescent formation
C. Membranous GN D. RPGN
Ans is A (FSGN)
116. Most specific test for acute pyelonephritis
A. Leucocyte esterase test B. WBC cast
C. Nitrite test D. NBT test
Ans is B (WBC cast)
117. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophies (LGMD) include all the fol¬lowing EXCEPT
A. Sarcoglycanopathies B. Dysferlinopathy
C. Calpainopathy D. Duchenne dystrophy
Ans is D (Duchenne dystrophy)
118. Drug of choice in multiple sclerosis
A. IFN a alpha B. IFN b beta
C. IFN g gamma D. Infliximab
Ans is B (IFN b beta)
119. False regarding Denosumab - used in treatment of osteoporo¬sis:
A. Denosumab is human a monoclonal antibody.
B. It combines with receptor activator of nuclear factor KP ligand (RANKL)
C. By binding RANKL with high affinity, Denosumab reduces bone resorption.
D. It is useful in treatment of SLE.
Ans is D (It is useful in treatment of SLE.)
120. All the following are increased in obstructive jaundite EX¬CEPT (CMC Vellore 2003)
A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Glutamate dehydrogenase
C. 5-nucleotidase D. -Glutamyl transpeptidase
Ans is B (Glutamate dehydrogenase)
121. Most specific antibody in rheumatoid arthritis
C. IgA RF D. Anti-CCP Ab
Ans is D (Anti-CCP Ab)
122. A newborn baby presented with profuse umbilical cord bleed¬ing after birth. Probably diagnosis is
A. Factor XIII deficiency B. Glanzmann thrombosthenia
C. VWD D. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
Ans is A (Factor XIII deficiency)
123. Pure neuronal lesion is
A. Spinocerebellar ataxia B. Progressive supranuclear palsy
C. Multisystem atrophy D. Corticopasal ganglionic degeneration
Ans is A (Spinocerebellar ataxia)
124. For diagnosis of syncope least helpful will be
A. PET scan B. Holter monitoring
C. Electrophysiological study D. Tilt table test
Ans is A (PET scan)
125.Hypotension in spinal cord injury occurs due to
A. Loss of sympathetic tone B. Loss of parasympathetic tone
C. Vasovagal shock D. Blood loss
Ans is A (Loss of sympathetic tone)
126. True regarding Carey Coomb’s murmur is all EXCEPT
A. Low pitch B. Diastolic murmur
C. Associated with aortic regurgitation D. Associated with rheumatic fever
Ans is C (Associated with aortic regurgitation)
127. Anaemia with increased transferrin saturation, and serum ferritin levels, and normal TIBC (AIIMS-2002 NOV)
A. Iron deficiency anaemia B. Beta-thalassaemia minor
C. Sideroblastic anaemia D. Anaemia due to chronic infection
Ans is B (Sideroblastic anaemia)
128. Worst prognosis of AML is seen in its association with (AI 2006)
A. Monosomy 7 B. Inv 16
C. t (8, 21) D. Normal karyotype
Ans is A (Monosomy 7)
129. Triglycerides-140 mg/dL, LDL-60 mg/dL are likely to be as¬ sociated with
A. Tendon xanthomas B. Plantar canthomas
C. Lipemia retinalis D. Eruptive xanthomas
Ans is A (Tendon xanthomas)
130. A baby presented with polydactyly, cleft lip, cleft palate, mi¬crocephaly, and micropthalmia. These features may be seen in which of the following chromosomal anomaly
A. Trisomy 21 B. Trisomy 18
C. Trisomy 13 D. Trisomy 16
Ans is C (Trisomy 13)
131. A 6 years old child with 50% IQ is able to
A. Ride bicycle B. Draw triangle
C. Read simple sentence D. Identify colour
Ans is D (Identify colour)
132. Neonate uses all defenses against hypothermia except
A. Shivering B. Child tries taking limbs towards body
C. Peripheral vasoconstriction D. Release of NA in brown adipose tissue
Ans is A (Shivering)
133. A 3 years old child is poor in language development, has poor concentration, no friends, plays only with himself, and has some delay in milestones. The likely diagnosis is
A. ADHD B. Autism
C. Specific learning disorder D. Normal for age
Ans is B (Autism)
134. Delusion is disorder of (Maharashtra 2003)
A. Thought B. Insight
C. Perception D. Behaviour
Ans is A (Thought)
135. Drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
A. Imipramine B. Fluoxetine
C. Haloperidol D. Clozapine
Ans is B (Fluoxetine)
136. Which of the following tests should be done for evaluation of a neonate with bullous skin lesion and X-ray showing perios¬titis at long bones?
A. VDRL B. PCR for tubercular DNA
C. Evaluation of mother D. ELISA.
Ans is D (VDRL)
137. A child has presented with eczematous dermatitis on exten¬sor aspects of extremities with severe itching. His mother has history of bronchial asthma. The likely diagnosis is
A. Acute eczematous reaction B. Scabies
C. Atopic dermatitis D. Infectious eczematoid dermatitis
Ans is C (Atopic dermatitis)
138. Regarding pityriasis rosea true is
A. Self limiting condition B. Chronic relapsing condition
C. Dermatophytic infection D. Common in neonates
Ans is A (Self limiting condition)
139. After eating peanuts, a child developed sudden swelling of tongue and neck, with hoarseness of voice. Likely diagnosis
A. Angioedema B. Foreign body in bronchus
C. Foreign body is larynx D. Retropharyngeal abscess
Ans is A (Angioedema)
140. Which of the following is not true about Mycosis fungoides?
A. Most common cutaneous lymphoma B. Pautrier’s abscess occur
C. Diffuse erythroderma common D. Often curable by therapy and has indolent course.
Ans is D (Often curable by therapy and has indolent course)
141. Posttransplant malignancy arises from
A. T cell B. 8 cell
C. Myeloid cells D. Fibroblasts
Ans is B (8 cell)
142. Most important prognostic factor in head injury
A. Glasgow coma scale B. CT scan head
C. Age of the patient D. Skull fracture
Ans is A (Glasgow coma scale)
143. Which of the. following is least associated with carcinoma breast?
A. Rb1 B. B’RACA1
C. BRACA2 D. ATM gene
Ans is D (ATM gene)
144. Adjuvant chemotherapy is of proven value in
A. Ca colon B. Ca oesophagus
C. Ca pancreas D. Breast cancer
Ans is A (Ca colon)
145. Barret’s oesophagus is
A. Intestinal metaplasia B. Squamous metaplasia
C. Columnar metaplasia D. Intestinal dysplasia
Ans is A (Intestinal metaplasia)
146. Biochemical change characteristic of CHPS is
A. Hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
B. Hypochloraemic, hYlperkalaemic metabolic alkalosis
C. Hyperchloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
D. Hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Ans is A (Hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis)
147. True regarding CARCINOID is
A. Most common tumor of small intestine
B. Not known to be associated with endomyocardial fibrosis
C. Most Comonly Found in duodenum
D. Carcinoid is small intestine may be associated with lung car¬cinoid.
Ans is D (Carcinoid is small intestine may be associated with lung car¬cinoid)
148. Most common ileostomy complications
A. Diarrhea B. Stenosis
C. Necrosis D. Prolapse
Ans is A (Diarrhea)
149. Haematemesis of about 500 mL with palpable spleen below costal margin. The likely diagnosis is
A. Portal hypertension B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Gastric ulcer D. Drug induced gastritis
Ans is A (Portal hypertension)
150. Which of the following colonic polyps is not premalignant? (JIPMER 2001)
A. Juvenile polyps
B. Hamartomatous polyps associated with Peutz-Jegher’s synd¬rome
C. Tubular adenomas
D. Villous adenomas
Ans is A (Juvenile polyps)
151. Best screening technique in patients with HNPCC for colonic cancer is
A. APC gene genetic screening B. Colonoscopy
C. Sigmidoscopy D. CEA levels
Ans is B (Colonoscopy)
152.ln patients with HNPCC following screening is must
A. Colon cancer screening B. Endometrial cancer screening
C. Ovarian cancer screening D. Screening for other HNPCC-associated cancers
Ans is A (Colon Cancer Screening)
152. All the following can be used to predict severe acute pan¬ creatitis EXCEPT: (PGI 2003)
A. Elevated serum aminotranferases B. Elevated serum amylase
C. Hyperglycaemia D. Hypocalcaemia
Ans is B (Elevated serum amylase)
153. Best approach for surgical repair of the injury to abdominal aorta above the level of renal artery involving superior me¬senteric artery, coeliac trunk, and the suprarenal branch
A. Left Medial visceral rotation B. Right Medial visceral rotation
C. Caudal visceral rotation D. Cranial visceral rotation
Ans is A (Left Medial visceral rotation)
154. Consumption of which of the following fruit juice prevents UTI?
A. Raspberry juice B. Cranberry juice
C. Orange juice D. Grape juice
Ans is B (Cranberry juice)
155. A 60-year-old smoker presented with painless haematuria. Which of the following would be most useful step for evalua¬tion
C. Plain x-ray KUB D. Urine microscopy for malignant cells
Ans is D (Urine microscopy for malignant cells)
156. True regarding external haemorrhoids is all except
A. Painful
B. They occur above the dentate line
C. They are formed due to swelling up of anal eushions & their supportive tissue.
D. Extensive ones require removal by surgery
Ans is B (They occur above the dentate line)
157. Regarding congenital torticollis true is all except
A. In 2/3rd cases sternomastoid mass is palpable B. If untreated leads to plagiocephaly
C. 80% undergo spontaneous resolution D. Always associated with breech presentation
Ans is D (Always associated with breech presentation)
158. Ideal time for orchiopexy in case of undescended testis
A. Neonate B. 1-2 years of age
C. 5 years of age D. Before puberty
Ans is B (1-2 years of age)
159. True about branchial cyst
A. Arises from 2nd branchial arch B. Branchial sinus is more common than cyst
C. Resection of branchial sinus is not necessary D. Presents with dysphagia and hoarseness of yoice
Ans is A (Arises from 2nd branchial arch.)
160. In Bankart lesion glenoid labrum is torn at
A. Anterior aspect B. Posterior aspect
C. Anterosuperior aspect D. Anteroinferior aspect
Ans is D (Anteroinferior aspect)
161. Pigmented villonodular synovitis most commonly involves:
A. Shoulder B. Ankle
C. Knee D. Metatarsophalangeal.
Ans is C (Knee)
162. Which tumour occurs at the epiphysis of long bone?
A. Osteosarcoma B. Ewing’s sarcoma
C. Osteoclastoma D. Chondromyxoid fibroma
Ans is C (Osteoclastoma)
163. Chemoresistant tumour is
A. Osteosarcoma B. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
C. Synovial sarcoma D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
Ans is B (Malignant fibrous histiocytoma)
164. Treatment of choice for glue ear
A. Medical treatment B. Myringotemy with ventilation tube
C. Gromet insertion D. Wait and watch
Ans is B (Myringotomy with ventilation tube)
165. Treatment for child with acute otitis media and bulging tym¬panic membrane (AIIMS 96)
A. Cold knife surgery B. Laser
C. Myringotomy D. Gromet insertion
Ans is C (Myringotomy)
166. A child presented with history of recurrent nasal blockade, mounth breathing 8r. URTI. The treatment of choice will be
A. Adnoidectomy with Grommet insertion B. Tonsillectomy
C. Bilateral myringotomy D. Unilateral myringotomy.
Ans is A (Adenoidectomy with Grommet insertion)
167. A woman complains of conductive deafness after pregnancy. The type of curve likely to be seen on tympanogram is
A. Ad B. A
C. As D. B
Ans is C (As.)
168. Least common cause of childhood blindness in India
A. Congenital dacrocystitis B. Ophthalmia neonatrum
C. Malnutrition D. Glaucoma
Ans is A (Congenital dacrocystitis)
169. A young male patient complained of orbital mass with prop¬tosis which increases on forward bending. The swelling was compressible. There is no bruit or thrill. On U5G, the lesion was retroorbital and hypoechoic. The likely diagnosis is
A. Orbital varix B. Orbital encephalocele
C. Neurofibroma D. AV malformation
Ans is A (Orbital varix)
170. Following are features of oculomotor nerve palsy except
A. Diplopia B. Ptosis
C. Miosis D. Lateral deviation of eye
Ans is C (Miosis)
171. All of the following are new strategies for cataract surgery except
A. TOL,implantation B. Free oph~halmic service
C. Fixed facility surgical approach D. Outreach eye camps
Ans is D (Outreach eye camps)
172. Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder of retina?
A. Bardet-Biedel syndrome
B. Best disease
C. Gyrate atrophy (defective arentihine ketoacid aminatransferse activity)
D. Bassen-Kornweg syndrome
Ans is B (Best syndrome)
173. Dissociative anaesthesia is associated with (Maharashtra 2003)
A. Propofol B. Ketamine
C. Thiopental D. Halothane
Ans is B (Ketamine)
174. True regarding xenon anaesthesia is all EXCEPT
A. Non-inflammable B. Low blood gas solubility
C. Slow induction and slow recovery D. Minimal cardiac effect
Ans is C (SlbW induction and slow recovery)
175. Generalized depression in EEG is seen in
A. Nitrous oxide B. Early hypoxia
C. Ketamine D. Hypothermia
Ans is D (Hypothermia)
176. Aneuploidy in first trimester can be best diagnosed by
A. Nuchallucency B. CRL
C. Amniotic fluid volume D. B-HCG
Ans is A (Nuchal translucency)
177. Which of the following is seen on bone scan in multiple my¬eloma?
A. Hot spots B. Cold spots
C. Diffuse decreased uptake D. Diffuse increased uptake
Ans is B (Cold spots)
178. Charcot’s joint is caused by all of the following except (PGI 2002)
1. Syringomyelia
2. Arthrogyposis congenita
3. Leprosy
4. Diabetes
Ans is B (Arthrogyposis congenita)
179. Craniovertebral junction is likely to be affected in all the fol¬lowing EXCEPT
A. Odontoid dysplasia B. Juvenile rheumatoid arteritis
C. Ankylosing spondylitis D. Osteoarthritis
Ans is D (Osteoarthritis)
180. A neonate developed CCF at birth. fie had bruit on ausculta¬tion at AF. Through the open AF cranial ultrasonography was done which revealed a well-defined round to oval midline hypoechoic lesion in between the lateral ventricles. The CCF was not responding to treatment. The likely diagnosis is
A. Arachnoid cyst B. Teratoma
C. Vein of Galen malformation D. Choroid plexus tumour
Ans is a (Vein of Galen malformation)
181. A young male was brought to emergency department in un¬conscious state with history of head injury. CT scan head re¬vealed small multiple haemorrhages in both cerebral hemi¬spheres with compressed basilar cisterns. No midline shift. The likely diagnosis is
A. Diffuse axonal injury B. Cerebral contusion
C. Cerebral laceration D. Multiple infarcts
Ans is 1 (Diffuse axonal injury)
182. A middle aged female had progressive paraplegia and uri¬nary retention. CEMRI revealed an enhancing iso to hyperin¬tense extramedullary intradural mass. The spinal cord was displaced and compressed. The likely diagnosis is
A. Teratoma B. Ependymoma
C. Meningioma D. Dermoid
Ans is C (Meningiorna)
183. All the following can be a -caase for obstruction of after com¬ing head of breech EXCEPT
A. Hydrocephalus B. Placenta previa
C. Incomplete dilatation D. Extended head
Ans is B (Placentia previa)
184. A patient having infertility is found to have bilateral cornual block on investigations. Best treatment that can be offered to her include (JIPMER 2004)
A. In vitro fertilization B. Tuboplasty
C. Hydrotubation D. Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy
Ans is D (In vitro fertilization)
185. Test to be done in a female with history of recurrent abortion
A. PT B. Bleeding time
C. Snake venom viper test D. dot lysis test
Ans is C (Snake venom viper test)
186. With which heart diseases in pregnancy is prognosis worst
A. Eisenmenger’s syndrome B. Aortic stenosis
C. Mitral stenosis D. MVP
Ans is A (Eisenmenger’s- syndrome)
187. Hyperglycaemia in late pregnancy associated with
A. Macrosomia B. Post-maturity
C. IUGR D. Congenital abnormalities
Ans is 1 (Macrosomia)
188. Most common abnormality in baby of diabetic mother
A. Neural tube defect B. Cardiac anomaly
C. Renal defects D. Limb defects
Ans is B (Cardiac anomaly)
189. Hypothyroidism in pregnancy can result in all the following except
A. Recurrent abortion B. PIH
C. Polyhydramnios D. Prematurity
Ans is C (Polyhydramnios)
190. Acetylcholineesterase levels are highly specific for
A. Omphalocele B. Gastroschisis
C. Open s’pina bifida D. Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Ans is C (Open spina bifida)
191. Red degeneration of fibroid is associated with (AI 90)
A. Postpartum B. 3rd trimester .
C. 2nd trimester D. 1st trimester
Ans is B (3rd trimester)
192. Most logical step after diagnosing CIN on Pap smear (Karn¬ataka 92)
A. Conization B. Colposcopy and biopsy
C. Hysterectomy D. USG
Ans is B (Colposcopy and biopsy)
193. Uterine prolapse is prevented by all the following EXCEPT (AIIMS 92)
A. Broad ligament ct uterus B. Levator ani mustle
C. Uterosacral ligament D. Transcervical Iiament
Ans is A (Broad ligament of uterus)
194. Physiological changes in pregnancy include the following EX¬CEPT (MP 2005)
A. Increased intra vascular volume B. Increased cardiac output
C. Increased peripheral vascular resistance D. Increased stroke volume
Ans is A (Peripheral vascular resistance)
195. Nile blue sulphatase test is done for assessing (JIPMER 93)
A. Fetal lung maturity B. Fetal skin maturity
C. Fetal kidney maturity D. Fetal liver maturity
Ans is A (Fetal lung maturity)
196. Lactational amenorrhoea occurs because
A. Prolactin inhibits GnRH B. Prolactin inhibits FSH
C. Stimulation 9f GnRH D. Stimulation of FSH
Ans is A (Prolactin inhibits GNRH)
197. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is beneficial in reduc¬ing all the following EXCEPT (AIIMS-2002 Dec)
A. Hot flushes B. Breast carcinoma
C. Osteoporosis D. Vaginal dryness
Ans is B (Breast carcinoma)
198. HIV transmission to the newborn is most commonly during
A. First trimester B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester D. Delivery
Ans is B (Delivery)
199. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know: (AIIMS 2006 May & Nov)
a) Prior probability to SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test.
b) Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test.
c) Incidence and prevelance of SLE.
d) Relative risk of SLE in this patient.
Ans is A (Prior probability to SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test.)
200. The Q. 199 was asked twice in the exam

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