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1. Y chromosome is:
A. Acrocentric B. Metacentric
C. Submetacentric D. Telocentric
Ans. (A) Acrocentric
2. Cells in intestine that migrate to surface include the following except:
A. Paneth cells B. Enterocytes
C. Goblet cells D. Enteroendocrine cells
Ans. (A) Paneth cells
3. Common carotid artery bifurcation occurs at the level of:
A. Hyoid bone B. Cricoid cartilage
C. Superior border of thyroid cartilage D. Inferior border of thyroid cartilage
Ans. (C) Superior border of thyroid cartilage.
4. While exposing left subclavian artery which of the following muscle is not dissected?
A. Omohyoid B. Scalenus anticus
C. Scalenus medius D. Sternocleidomastoid
Ans. (C) Scalenus medius
5. Typical cervical vertebral can be easily differen¬tiated from thoracic vertebral by:
A. Large vertebral body B. Foramen transversarium
C. Superior articular facet D. Wide triangular vertebral canal
Ans. (B) Foramen transversarium
6. Facial nerve can be assessed by testing action of which ofthe following muscle?
A. Orbicularis oris B. Temporalis
C. Masseter D. Pterygoid
Ans. (A) Orbicularis oris
7. Pudendal nerve supplying sphincter of bladder : has the root value of?
A. T12-L1 B. S1-S2
C. S2-S3 D. L2-L3
Ans. (C) S2-S3
1. Fastest technique to detect X-Y intersex:
A. PCR with sequencing B. FISH
C. RFLP D. Single-strand conformational polymorphism (SSCP)
Ans. (B) FISH
2. Which of the following is not required in PCR?
A. DNTP B. Primer
C. DNA probe D. Heat stable DNA Polymerase
Ans. (C) DNA probe
3. All the following reaction occur in the mito¬ chondria except: (JIPMER 1988)
A. Embeden Meroff pathway B. Krebs cycle
C. Urea cycle D. Fatty acid cycle of oxidation
Ans. (A) Embeden Meroffpathway
4. Enzymes of glycolysis are present in:
A. Cytosol B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus D. Cell membrane
Ans. (A) Cytosol
5. CO2 + H2O are formed in which of the following?
A. Cytosol B. Mitochondria
C. Extracellular matrix D. Cell membrane
Ans. (B) Mitochondria
6. Final product of Purine metabolism in Don primate mammals:
A. lonosine B. Xanthine
C. Uric acid D. Allantoin
Ans. (D) Allantoin
7. Ammonia is formed from which ofthe following amino acid?
A. Glutamine B. Alanine
C. Leucine D. Histidine
Ans. (A) Glutamine
8. Essential amino acids include the following except: (AI 1991)
A. Lysine B. Methionine
C. Leucine D. Alanine
Ans. (D) Alanine
9. Triglyceride content is highest in:
C. Chylomicrons D. HDL
Ans. (C) Chylomicrons
10. Thymine deficiency is not seen in:
A. Homocystinuria B. Beriberi
C. Wernicke’s-KarsokofPs psychosis D. Hartnup disease
Ans. (A) Homocystinuria
11. Vitamin A in its overdose/toxicity acts by causing damage to:
A. Cytosol B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosome D. Cell membrane
Ans. (C) Lysosome
12. Vitamin excreted in urine:
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin E
Ans. (C) Vitamin C
13. Antioxidants in eye include following except: (AI 2007)
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E D. Catalase
Ans. (A) Vitamin A
14. Richest source of vitamin D:
A. Fish B. Egg
C. Citrus fTuit D. Pappya
Ans. (A) Fish
15. Active form of vitamin D?
A. 25-ergosterol B. 1,25-dihydroergosterol
C. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol D. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
Ans. (D) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
16. Hyaluronic acid occurs maximally at: (DNB 1989; AIIMS 2006 Nov.)
A. Outer layer epidennis B. Vitreous humour
C. Retina D. Cornea
Ans. (B) Vitreous humour
17. Krebs cycle begins with:
A. Pyruvate B. Acetyl-CoA
C. Fatty acid D. Succinyl CoA
Ans. (A) Pyruvate
18. Bile acid is produced from:
A. Bilirubin B. Lipoprotein
C. Cholesterol D. Amino acids
Ans. (C) Cholesterol
1. Not true regarding action ofENDOTHELIN-l:
A. Vasoconstriction B. Bronchodilatation
C. Decreased GFR D. Water retention
Ans. (B) Bronchodilatation
2. Iron is absorbed in:
A. Stomach B. Duodenum and proximal jejunum
C. Jejunum and ileum D. Colon
Ans. (B) Duodenum and proximal jejunum
3. Oxygen toxicity can cause all except:
A. Increases lung compliance B. Decreased vital capacity
C Atelectatic collapse D. Endothelial damage
Ans: (A) Increases lung compliance
4. O2 transfer to the tissue does not depend on:
A. Hemoglobin concentration B. Cardiac output
C. Type of fluid administered D. O2 concentration
Ans. (D) Type of fluid administered
5. Cerebral blood flow is not dependent on:
A. Cerebral Metabolic rate B. CO2
C. Blood pressure D. K+
Ans. (D) K+
6. Non-endogenous catecholamine:
A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine D. Dobutamine
Ans. (D) Dobutamine
7. All are true about the blood pressure measure¬ment except:
A. Korotkoff sound IV correspond to intra¬ arterial diastolic blood pressure
B. BP cuff should be 40% of arm circumference
C. Small cuff gives rise to spuriously high dias¬tolic BP
D. Monkeberg sclerosis may give rise to spuriously high BP
Ans. (C) Small cuff gives rise to spuriously high diastolic BP
8. Renal Free water clearance is:
A. ADH dependent B. Renin dependent
C. Aldosterone dependent D. Increased by frusemide
Ans. (A) ADH dependent
9. Mineralocorticoid receptors are not present in:
A DCT B. Colon
C. Hippocampus D. Liver
Ans. (D) Liver
10. Renin is secreted in:
A. PCT B. Ascending loop of Henle
C. Descending loop of Henle D. DCT
Ans. (D) DCT
11. Juxtaglomerular apparatus is located in:
A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. Ascending loop of distal convoluted tubule
C. Descending loop of distal convoluted tubule D. Glomerulus
Ans. (B) Ascending loop of distal convoluted tubule
12. True about hemodynamic changes occurring during isometric exercise include all except:
A. Increased Cardiac output B. Increased Coronary blood flow
C. Increased Peripheral vascular resistance D. O2 dissociation curve shift to right
Ans. (C) Increased Coronary blood flow
13. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) is degraded by:
A. Neutral Endopeptidase B. Protease
C. Protinase D. Altepase
Ans. (A) Neutral Endopeptidase
1. Not a feature of apoptosis:
A. Cell shrinkage B. Chromatin condensation
C. Cytoplasmic blebs and apoptotic bodies D. Inflammation.
Ans. (D) Inflammation
2. Which is not a B-cell marker?
A. CD-15 B. CD-21
C. CD-24 D. CD-19
Ans. (A) CD-15
3. Hb electrophoresis is helpful diagnosis due to which of the following proper,ty?
A. Charge and mobility B. Molecular weight
C. Particle size D. Solubility
Ans. (A) Charge and mobility
4. Steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome is asso¬ciated with mutation in - gene? (AIIMS 2006 Nov.)
Ans. (D) NPHS2
5. Michaelis Guttman bodies are characteristic of:
A. Multiple myeloma B. Malakoplakia
C. Sarcoidosis D. Pilomatrixoma
Ans. (B) Malakoplakia
6. Histological appearance ofIiver in malaria:
A. Kuffer cell hyperplasia B. Eosinophilic infiltrate
C. Mononuclear infiltrate D. Foamy cells
Ans. (A) Kuffer cell hyperplasia

1. Spalding’s sign seen in:
A. Drowning B. Maceration
C. Hanging D. Poisoning
Ans. (B) Maceration
2. Site of action of Mercury: (AI 2007)
A. Loop of Henle B. PCT
C. OCT D. Collecting ducts
Ans. (B) PCT
3. Which of he following is nota dialysable poison? (AI 2007)
A. Ethylene glycol B. Copper sulphate
C. Barbiturate D. Alcohol
Ans. (B) Copper sulphate
4. Hemoperfusion with Charcoal is used in treat¬ment of poisoning with:
A. Ethylene glycol B. Lithiwn
C. Methanol D. Barbiturates
Ans. (D) Barbiturates
1. Most common cause of IV catheter infection?
A. E co!i B. Kleihsiella
C. Streptococci D. Coagulase negative staphylococcus aureus
Ans. (D) Coagulase negative staphylococcus aureus
2. Traveler’s diarrhoea is most commonly caused by: (SGPGI2002)
A. EIEC B. S. dysenteriae
C. EPEe D. Salmonella
Ans. (A) ETEC
3. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome can be caused by the following except: (JIPMER /995)
A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli
C. Shigella D. Vibrio cholerae
Ans. (D) Vibrio cholerae
4. Infective endocarditis by pseudomonas is common in patients with:
A. Drug addiction with pethidine B. Immunosuppression
C. Splenectomy D. Steroid therapy
Ans. (D) Steroid therapy
5. Most common cause of neonatal sepsis in hospitals:
A. Klebsiella B. Betahemdytic streptococci
C. Streptococci D. E. coli
Ans. (D) E. coli
6. Group A streptococci can be differentiated from other bacteria by: (AIIMS 2006 Nov.)
A. Optochin sensitivity. B. Bacitracin susceptibility.
C. Bile Solubility. D. Catalase negativity.
Ans. (B) Bacitracin susceptibility
7. True about pseudo membranous colitis?
A. Toxin A of Clostridium difjicile is mainly involved in pathogenesis
B. Toxin B of Clostridium difjicile is mainly involved in pathogenesis
C. Summit lesion is a early histological finding
D. Blood in stools is a common feature
Ans. (A) A toxin of Clostridium difficile is mainly involved in pathogenesis
8. Which of the following statements about Lepromin test is not true? (AI 2007)
A. It is negative in most children in first 6 months oflife.
B. It is a diagnostic test.
C. It is an important aid to classify type ofleprosy disease.
D. BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive.
Ans. (B) It is a diagnostic test
9. A 2 year old child on 8th day of 10 day Cefaclor course presented with fever malaise lympha¬denopathy and a mildly pruritic rash on body. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Partially treated meningitis B. Kawasaki disease
C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
Ans. (D) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
10. Which ofthe following is cultivable in vitro?
Ans. (A) HAV
1. Regarding prodrug and active drug, untrue is:
A. The placebo response is usually quantitated by administration of an inert material, with exactly the same physical appearance, odor, consistency, etc., as the active dosage form.
B. The magnitude of the response is same in all patients
C. The incidence of the placebo response is fairly constant, being observed in 20-40% of patients in almost all studies.
D. Placebo “toxicity” also occurs but usually involves subjective effects: stomach upset, insomnia, sedation, etc.
Ans. (B) The magnitude of the response is same in all patients
2. Anti-emetics are the following except:
A. Domeperidone B. Ondansetron
C. Cyclizine D. Phenacizine
Ans. (D) Phenacizine
3. Against MRSA drugs useful are all the following except: (AI 2007)
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Vancomycin
D. Cefaclor
Ans. (D) Cefaclor
4. Imatinib mesylate acts by: (AIIMS 2006 May)
A. Inhibiting Glutathione reductase.
B. Blocking the action of chimeric fusion protein ofbcr-abl
C. Competitive inhibition A TP binding site of Abl kinase
D. Inhibiting Protein kinase
Ans. (C) Competitive inhibition A TP binding site of Abl kinase
5. Carbimazole if given in pregnancy is known to cause the following except:
A. Choanal atresia B. Cleft palate and lip
C. Scalp defect D. Goiter
Ans. (B) Cleft palate and lip
6. Antihypertensive having highest risk of causing impotence?
A. ACE inhibitors B. Beta blockers
C. Aldosterone antagonist D. Calcium channel blockers
Ans. (B) Beta blockers
7. Bone marrow depression can be caused by the following drugs except:
A. Methicillin B. Chloramphenicol
C. Chlorpromazine D. Alpha methyl hydantoin
Ans. (A) Methicillin
8. Action of digoxin is not significantly altered by:
A. Myocardial infarction B. Liver disease
C. Renal failure D. Electrolyte imbalance
Ans. (B) Liver disease
9. Drug that can cause gynecomastia?
A. Testosterone B. Spironolactone
C. Ampicillin D. Atenolol
Ans. (B) Spironolactone
10. Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Beta blockers B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers D. Sodium channel blockers
Ans. (B) ACE inhibitors
11. Which does not cause activation of NO?
A. Fenoldopam B. Hydralazine
C. Niroprusside D. Nitrogycerine
Ans. (A) Fenoldopam
12. Antihypertensive drug that can be used in pregnancy?
A. Labetolol B. Enalapril
C. Hydralazine D. Amlodepine
Ans. (A) Labetolol
13. Which ofthe following immunosuppressant is a macrolide antibiotic?
A. Cyclosporine B. Azathioprine
C. Mycophenolate D. Tacrolimus
Ans. (D) Tacrolimus
14. FK 506 is:
A. Macrolide antibiotic B. TNF alpha inhibitor
C. Anti-leukemic drug D. Monoclonal antibody
Ans. (A) Macrolide antibiotic
15. Interstitial nephritis can be caused by the following except:
A. Diuretics B. INH
C. Allopurinol D. Beta lactamase inhibitors
Ans. (B) INH
16. Prophylaxis in patients with penicillin sensitive allergy can be given with?
A. Erythromycin B. Cephalosporins
C. Carbapenems D. Oxacilin
Ans. (A) Erythromycin
17. Which of the following drug does not cause hypertension?
A. Cyclosporin B. Erythropoetin
C. NSAIDS D. L-dopa
Ans. (D) L-dopa
18. Which of the following is an antimetabolite?
A. Methotrexate B. Cyclosporine
C. Etoposide D. Vinblastine
Ans. (A) Methotrexate
19. Naloxone is contraindicated in neonatal resusci¬tation ifthe mother is taking:
A. Cocaine B. Amphetamine
C. Methadone D. Phencyclidine
Ans. (C) Methadone
1. Mutation of which gene related to pulmonary hypertension is?
A. Bone morphogenic protein receptor 2 gene B. Endothelin gene
C. Fabrin gene D. RANK Ligand gene
Ans. (A) Bone morphogenic protein receptor 2 gene
2. Clubbing is feature of all the following except:
A. Aortic dissection B. Tricuspid atresia
C. Fungal endocarditis D. Pulmonary A V fistula
Ans. (A) Aortic dissection
3. ‘Half and halP nail seen in uremia occurs due to:
A. Hemorrhages at the nail bed B. Capillary proliferation under nail plate
C. Deposition of uremic crystals at nail base D. Melanin deposition
Ans. (B) Capillary proliferation under nail plate
4. Water hammer pulse is a feature of:
A. Aortic regurgitation B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Aortic stenosis D. Mitral stenosis
Ans. (A) Aortic regurgitation
5. Differential diagnosis of raised JVP with shock will include the following except:
A. Heart failure B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Second degree heart block D. Right ventricular infarction
Ans. (B) Second degree heart block
6. A 30 year old male has diarrhoea, anaemia, and raised liver enzymes. Which of the following will you do for further evaluation?
A. Anti-thyroid antibodies B. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies
C. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies D. Anti-endomysial antibodies
Ans. (D) Anti-endomysial antibodies
7. Least Common complication of measles? (AI 2007)
A. Cranial nerve palsy B. Otitis media
C. Pneumonia D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Ans. (D) (Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis)
8. Loeffiet’s syndrome is caused by the following except:
A. Giardia lamblia B. Aspergillus
C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Inherited L-tryptophan deficiency
Ans. (A) Giardia lamblia
9. Tests for neurocardiogenic syncope include all the following except:
A. Duplex doppler of carotid B. Table tilt test
C. Carotid massage D. 24 hours orthostatic monitoring ofBP
Ans. (A) Duplex doppler of carotid
10. In acute graft verses host disease (Acute GVHD), organ not involved is?
A. Skin B. Lung
C. Liver D. Intestine
Ans. (B) Lung
11. Which is not a characteristic feature of hemolysis?
A. Burr cells and tear drop cells B. Decreased haptoglobin
C. Hemoglobinuria D. Reticulocytosis
Ans. (A) Burr cells and tear drop cells
12. Reticulocytosis is seen in all the following except:
A. Postsplenectomy B. Chronic hemolytic anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Ans. (D) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
13. A 21 years old male has anaemia (Hb=5g/dl) with hepatosplenomegaly and history of single blood transfusion till date. The most probable clinical diagnosis should be?
A. B-thalassemia major B. B-thalassemia intermedia
C. B- Thalassemia minor D. HbH disease
Ans. (B) B-thalassemia intermedia
14. DIC is feature of:
A. Acute lymphatic leukemia B. Acute Myelomonocytic leukemia
C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia D. Acute Erythroleukemic leukemia
Ans. (C) Acute promyelocytic leukemia
15. Plasma exchange is of therapeutic benefit in which ofthe following?
C. HUS D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)
Ans. (B) TTP
16. A 3-year-old child presented with pallor, petechiae, and ecchymotic patches all over the body with history of pain abdomen. Spleen is not. palpable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
C. Aplastic anemia D. Acute leukemias
Ans. (B) ITP
17. Earliest phenotypic feature of idiopathic hereditary hemochromatosis is?
A. Postprandial rise in serum iron level B. Slate grey pigmentation of skin
C. Elevated ferritin levels D. Increased serum transferrin saturation
Ans. (D) Increased serum transferrin saturation
18. Most common cause of renal artery stenosis in childhood in India:
A. Medial fibroplasia B. Intimal fibroplasia
C. Takayasu’s arteritis D. Polyarteritis nodosa
Ans. (A) Medial fibroplasia
19. Nephrocalcinosis is not seen in:
A. Sarcoidosis B. Distal Renal tubular acidosis
C. Medullary cystic disease of kidney D. Milk alkali syndrome
Ans. (C) Medullary cystic disease of kidney
20. High anion-gap acidosis is seen the following except: (JIPMER 94)
A. Salicylate toxicity B. Renal failure
C. Lactic acidosis D. Diarrhea
Ans. (D) Diarrhea
21. All the following can be seen in Addison’s disease except:
A. Serum cortisol <8 mmol /L B. Decreased renin C. Decreased diastolic BP D. Cardiac atrophy Ans. (B) Decreased renin 22. MEN2 is associated with the following except: A. Pheochromocytoma B. Islet cell hyperplasia C. Parathyroid adenoma D. Thyroid cancer Ans. (B) Islet cell hyperplasia 23. Heterotopic Calcification can be best monitored by: (AI 2007) A. Serum Calcium Levels B. Follow up X-rays C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Acid phosphatase Ans. (A) Serum Calcium Levels 24. A 60-year-old man with sensorineural deafness and bony abnormality in left leg has sr.ca2+-9.5 and serum alkaline phosphate 440mu/I skeletal survey shows cotton wool lesions in skull and ivory vertebra. The ~ost probable diagnosis is? A. Paget’s disease B. Osteosclerotic metastasis C. Osteoporosis D. Fibrous dysplasia Ans. (A) Paget’s disease 25. Pituitary apoplexy is not associated with which of the following? A. Hypertension B. Diabetes Mellitus C. Hyperthyroidism D. Sickle cell anaemia Ans. (C) Hyperthyroidism 26. Following cranial radiation therapy production of which ofthe following Pituitary hormone is first affected? A. ACTH B. G-I C. Gonadotropin D. Prolactin Ans. (B) Growth hormone 27. Arsenic is useful in treatment of A Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia B. Myelodysplastic syndrome C. Transient myeloproliferative disorders D. ALL Ans: (A) Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia 28. Which will prolong life in a patient of Post¬Myocardial Infarction? A. Omega-3 fatty acids B. High fiber diet C. VitaminE D. Steroids Ans. (A) Omega-3 fatty acids 29. Atkins diet is: A. Low carbohydrate diet B. Low protein diet C. Low fat diet D. Low mineral diet Ans. (A) Low carbohydrate diet CHAPTER NINE SURGERY 1. Gold Standard tool for monitoring intracranial tension: A. Intraventricular catheter B. Subarachnoid bolt C. Epidural catheter D. Parenchymal electrode Ans. (A) Intraventricular catheter 2. Ideal time for orchiopexy in case ofU ndescended testis: A. Neonate B. 1-2 years of age C. 5 years of age D. Before puberty Ans. (B) 1-2 years of age 3. True about branchial cyst: (AIIMS Nov. 2006) A. Arises from 2nd branchial arch B. Branchial sinus is more common than cyst C. Resection of branchial sinus is not necessary D. Presents with dysphagia and hoarseness of voice Ans. (A) Arises from 2nd branchial arch 4. In a 44-years-old male with carcinoma involving right lateral border tongue with enlarged level III lymph node of 4 cnf diameter on left side of neck, the staging would be: A. N0 B. N2 C. N3 D. N4 Ans. (B) N2 5. A 20-year.~old girl presents with history of neck swelling sihce 6 months. She also has sy~ptoms of hyp~rthyroidism. On palpation she has a 2 x 2 cm thyroid nodule. The most appropriate next investigation in further evaluation ofthis patient would be: A. Ultrasonography B. Thyroid scan C. Radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU) D. CT scan Ans. (B) Thyroid scan 6. Treatment of choice for carcinoma breast with positive axillary lymph nodes with modified radical mastectomy done: A. Adriyamycin B. Adriyamycin and tamoxifen together, ifthere is estrogen receptor positivity C. Adriyamycin followed bytamoxifen ifthere is estrogen receptor positivity D. Adriyamycin and tamoxifen ifthere is estrogen receptor negativity Ans. (C) Adriyamycin followed by tamoxifen if there is estrogen receptor positivity 7. Renal angle: A. 11th rib and lateral border of quadratus lumborum B. 12th rib and lateral border of quadratus lumborum C 11th rib and lateral border of sacrospinalis muscle D. 12th rib and lateral border of sacrospinalis muscle Ans. (D) 12th rib and lateral border of sacrospinalis muscle 8. Which of the fpllowing not a complication of surgery for right thoracic outlet syndrome: A. Injury to Long thoracic nerve. B. Brachial plexus injury C. Lymphatic fistula D. Pneumothorax Ans (C) Lymphatic fistula 9. AST : AL T > 1 is seen in:
A. Non-alcoholic liver disease B. Alcoholic hepatitis
C. Wilson’s disease D. All of the above
Ans. (B) Alcoholic hepatitis
10. Which of the following protein is not synthesized in liver?
A. Immunoglobulin B. c3 complement
C. Fibrinogen D. Haptoglobin
Ans: (A) Immunoglobulin
11. In creased Urinary Copper excretion can be seen in all the following except:
A. Cholestasis B. Wilson’s disease
C. Hepatic tumors D. Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
Ans. (C) Hepatic tumors
12. Which of the following can be most beneficial in the patients with alcoholic liver disease?
A. S-adenosyl methionine B. N acetyl cysteine .
C. Silmyras D. Pethidine
Ans. (A) S-adenosyl methionine
13. A 9 months pregnant lady presents with jaundice, abdominal distension, and pedal edema. Though she delivered a normal baby, her clinical condition deteriorated with increasing abdominal discomfort and distension. On examination she has tender hepatomegaly 6cm below costal margin. Her bilirubin is 5d/dl, the ALT levels are 345IU, SAP was 4450/1 and liver enzymes were elevated. Her ascetic fluid shows 3g/dl albumin with 10 Iymphocytes/ml. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute viral hepatitis B. Budd Chiari syndrome
C. Acute Fatty liver of pregnancy D. HELLP syndrome
Ans. (B) Budd Chiari syndrome
14. Tumor markers for hepatocellular carcinoma include the following except:
A. Fucosylated AFP B. Neurotensin
C. PIVKA D. Alpha 2 macroglobulin
Ans. (D) Alpha 2 macroglobulin
15. Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis is characterized by: (AIIMS May 2006)
A. Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
B. Hyperchloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
C. Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
D. Hyperchloremic hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
Ans. (A) Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
16. CEA is tumor marker for all the following except:
A. Ca breast B. Ca colon
C. Ca stomach D. Osteosarcoma
Ans. (D) Osteosarcoma
17. Accessory pancreatic tissue is most commonly located at:
A. Stomach B. Appendix
C. Ileum D. Splenic hilum
Ans. (B) Stomach
18. Most common complication ofERCP:
A. Bleeding B. Acute cholangitis
C. Acute pancreatitis D. Duodenal perforation
Ans. (B) Acute cholangitis
19. The histological pattern typically seen in Solitary rectal ulcer:
A. The characteristic muscle fibres with fibrosis and collagen proliferation in lamina propria
B. The trapped mucosa. with submucosal cysts
C. The chronic inflammatory cells and granulomas
D. Intraepithelial collection oflymphocytes
Ans. (A) The characteristic muscle fibres with fibrosis and collagen proliferation in lamina propria
20. Investigation of choice for diverticulosis:
A. Barium enema B. Colonoscopy
C. Ultrasonography D. CT scan
Ans. (D) CT scan
21. Screening is most helpful for early detection of which of the following cancer: (AIIMS May 2006)
A. Colonic cancer B. Brain tumor
C. Ovarian Cancer D. Prostatic Cancers
Ans. (A) Colonic Cancer
22. A middle aged man presented with a bout of hematemesis. His upper GI endoscopy was done for the same which tUrD.ed out to be normal. Patient was treated symptomatically and was relieved. After some hours he again had bouts of hematemesis. Which ofthe following would be most appropriate step in further evaluation of this patient:
A. Repeat endoscopic examination B. Nuclear scan
C. Angiography D. Barium study
Ans. (A) Repeat endoscopic examination
23. Which of the following should not be done in evaluation of Pheochromocytoma?
C. MIBG scan D. MRI
Ans. (A) FNAC
24. Most specific test for acute pyelonephritis: (AIIMS 2006 Nov)
A. Leucocyte esterase test B. Leucocyte cast
C. Nitrite test D. Gram staining of urine sample
Ans. (D) Gram staining of urine sample
25. Consumption of which of the following fruit juice prevents UTI? (AIIMS 2006 Nov)
A. Raspberry juice B. Cranberry juice
C. Orange juice D. Grape juice
Ans. (B) Cranberry juice
26. Which of the following renal calculi are most difficult to treat with lithotripsy?
A. Uric acid stones B. Cystine stones
C. Calcium oxalate stones D. Triple phosphate stones
Ans. (B) Cystine stones
27. A 70-year-old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia underwent transurethral resection of prostate (fURP) under spinal anaesthesia. One hour later, he developed vomiting, drowsiness, and altered sensorium. The most probable is: (AIPGE 2003)
A. Over dosage of spinal anaesthetic agent B. Rupture of bladder
C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyponatremia
Ans. (D) Hyponatremia
28. Life threatening conditions common to diabetic patients include the following except:
A. Malignant otitis extema B. Emphysematous pyelonephritis
C. Emphysematous appendicitis D. Rhinocerebral mucormycosis
Ans. (C) Emphysematous appendicitis
1. Nile blue test is done for: (AI 2007)
A. Fetal lung maturity B. Fetal renal maturity
C. Fetal skin maturity D. Fetal liver maturity
Ans. (C) Fetal skin maturity
2. Neonatal Reflex present at birth: (AI 2007)
A. Crossed extensor reflex B. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
C. Symmetric tonic neck reflex D. Rooting reflex
Ans. (D) Rooting reflex
3. Moro’s Reflex is considered abnormal if it persists even after: (AI 2007)
A. 3 months B. 4 months
C. 5 months D. 6 months
Ans. (D) 6 months
4. A 6 years old child with 50% IQ is able to: (AI 2007)
A. Ride bicycle B. Draw triangle
C. Read simple sentence D. Identify colour
Ans. (D) Identifies colour
5. A 3 years old child is poor in language develop¬ment has poor concentration, no friends, plays only with himself, and has some delay in mile¬ stones. The likely diagnosis is: (AI 2007)
A. ADHD B. Autism
C. Specific learning disorder D. Normalfor age
Ans. (B) Autism
6. Highest Acetylcholine esterase levels in amniotic fluid are seen with: (AIIMS 2006 Nov.)
A. Open spina bifida
B. Gastroschisis
C. Omphalocele
D. Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Ans. (A) Open spina bifida
7. Most common anomaly in Infant of Diabetic Mother:
A. Neural tube defect B. Renal anomalies
C. Cardiac malformation D. Bony abnormalities
Ans. (A) Neural tube defect
8. A full term neonate presented on 14th day with jaundice with 18 mg/dL of unconjugated bilirubin. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis? .
A. Hypothyroidism B. G6PD deficiency
C. Breastmilk jaundice D. Neonatal cholangiopathy
Ans. (D) Neonatal cholangiopathy
9. Acute and Chronic malnutrition is indicated by: (AIIMS 2006 Nov.)
A. Weight for age B. Height for age
C. Weight for height D. Body mass index
Ans. (C) Weight for height
10. Rickets in infancy is characterized by the follow¬ing except:
A. Irritability B. Craniotabes
C. Enlargement of the costochondral junctions D. Bowing oflegs
Ans. (D) Bowing oflegs
11. What is not true for cow’s milk?
A. It has lower carbohydrate than breast milk
B. It has higher potassium and sodium than infant formula feeds
C. Higher protein than breast milk
D. It contain more amount of whey protein than casein
Ans. (D) It contain more amount of whey protein than casem
12. A child presented with fever, non productive cough, and mild dyspnoea. After the course of mild antibiotic the condition of child improved transiently but he again presented with high fever productive cough and increased respiratory distress with chest X-ray showing hyper¬translucent I~ngs and PFT suggestive of severe obstructive changes. What is the following is most likely diagnosis?
A. Post viral syndrome B. Alveolar microlithasis
C. Bronchiolitis obliterans D. Follicular bronchilitis
Ans. (C) Bronchiolitis obliterans
13. A newborn baby presented with profuse bleeding from umbilical stump after birth. Probably diagnosis is: (AI 2007)
A. Factor XIII deficiency B. GIanzmann thrombosthenia
C vWF Deficiency D. Bernord Soulier syndrome
Ans. (A) Factor XIII deficiency
(Ref: Harrison’s Medicine 16th EdlP-677)
14. A Infant presented with weight loss, anorexia, vomiting, dehydration, weakness, hypotension. Lab studies revealed hyponatremia and hyper¬kalemia. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. 2 I-hydroxylase deficiency B. II-hydroxylase deficiency
C. 3-P-hydroxylase deficiency D. Conn’s syndrome
Ans. (A) 2 I-hydroxylase deficiency
15. A 15-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breasts are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. She has bilateral inguinal masses. Uterus is found to be absent on further evaluation. The most likely diagnosis is: (AI 2006)
A. Turner’s syndrome B. Mullerian agenesis
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome. D. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Ans. (D) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
16. Not true regarding Congenital Torticollis: (AIIMS 2006 Nov.)
A. In 2/3 cases sternomastoid mass is palpable B. If untreated leads to Plagiocephaly
C. 80% undergo Spontaneous resolution D. Always associated with breech presentation
Ans. (D) Always associated with breech presentation
1. In patients with osteoarthritis of knee joint, atrophy occurs most commonly in which muscle? (AI 2007)
A. Quadriceps only B. Gastrocnemius
C. Quadriceps and Hamstrings D. Hamstrings
Ans. (A) Quadriceps only
2. Bohler’s angle is lost in fracture of:
A. Talus B. Femoral neck
C. Calcaneum D. Tibial plateau
Ans. (C) Calcaneum
1. A woman complains of conductive deafness after pregnancy. The type of curve likely to be seen on tympanogram is:
A. Ad B. A
C. As D. B
Ans. (C) As
2. A 6 years old child presents history of with nasal blockade, mouth breathing, recurrent URQ, and hearing loss. Which ofthe following would be most appropriate treatment for this child? (AI 2007)
A. Tonsillectomy B. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion
C. Grommet insertion D. Myringoplasty with grommet insertion
Ans. (B) Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion)
3. Treatment of choice for Glue ear: (AIIMS 2006 Nov.)
A. Medical Treatment B. Myringotomy with ventilation tube
C. Grommet insertion D. Wait and watch
Ans. (B) Myringotomy with ventilation tube
4. A person developed sudden stridor, hoarseness of voice, tongue swelling, and edematous neck after eating a peanut. What is the likely diag¬nosis? (AIIMS 2006 Nav)
A. Foreign body aspiration B. Pharyngeal perforation
C. Angioneurotic edema D. Para pharyngeal abscess
Ans. (C) Angioneurotic edema
1. Least common cause of childhood blindness in India:
A. Congenital dacrocystitis B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Malnutrition D. Glaucoma
Ans. (A) Congenital dacrocystitis
2. Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder of Retina? (AI 2007)
A. Bardet Biedel syndrome
B. Best disease
C. Gyrate atrophy (defective arentihine ketoacid aminatransferse activity)
D. Bassen-Komweg syndrome
Ans. (B) Best syndrome
1. L-J chart is for:
A. Accuracy B. Positivity
C. Sensitivity D. Specificity
Ans. (A) Accuracy
2. Which of the following is a disability limitation? (AIIMS Nov. 2006)
A. Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization B. Arranging for schooling of child suffering fromPRPP
C. Resting affected limbs in neutral position D. Provide calipers for walking
Ans. (C) Resting affected limbs in neutral position
3. Most commonly abused agent in India: (AI 2007)
A. Cannabis indica B. Tobacco
C. Heroine D. Amphetamine
Ans. (B) Tobacco
4. Conditions that have been identified as immediate priorities within VISION 2020 include the following except:
A. Cataract B. Trachoma
C. Onchocerciasis D. Epidemic conjunctivitis
Ans. (D) Epidemic conjunctivitis
5. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all the following routes except: (AI 2007)
A. Transplacental B. Milk borne
C. Person to person D. Inhalation
Ans. (C) Person to person
6. Lice are not the vectors of: (AIIMS 2006 May)
A. Relapsing fever B. Q fever
C. Trench fever D. Epidemic typhus
Ans. (B) Q fever
7. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water? (AIIMS 2006 May)
A. Chlorometer B. Berkefeld filter
C. Horrock’s apparatus D. Double pot method
Ans. (B) Horrock’s apparatus
8. Which is the best method to compare the results obtained by a new test and a gold standard test? (AIIMS 2006 Nov)
A. Correlation study B. Regression study
C. Bland and Altman analysis D. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
Ans. (C) Bland and Altman analysis
9. Standard error is:
A. S.D/n B. S.Dxn
C. SD/2n D. S.D/square root of n
Ans. (C) S.D/square root of n
10. In a sample of 100 people mean hb is 10 and standard deviation is one. What is the standard error?
A. 0.1 B. 1
C. 0.001 D. 10
Ans. (A) 0.1
11. A survey was done to study the effect of insulin dose and corresponding “bAle levels corrected for age. What would be the best test to study the relation?
A. Linear regression B. Logistic regression
C. Pearson correlation D. Student t test
Ans. (D) Student t test
12. Not true about ideal screening test?
A. High Sensitivity B. High ppecificity
C. Posittve predictive value D. Negative predictive value
Ans. (A) High Sensitivity
13. Increase in confidence limit causes:
A. No insignificant change B. Significant change
C. No change D. Change from significant to nonsignificant
Ans. (A) No insignificant change
14. About ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) true is all except: (AIIMS Nov. 2006)
A. They are preferably females B. There is one ASHA worker per 1000 popu¬lation
C. ASHA is skilled birth attendant D. Provides primary medical care for minor ailments
Ans. (C) ASHA is skilled birth attendant
15. Aryl group containing phosphorous compounds are the followings except: (AI 2007)
A. Tik 20 B. Propoxur
C. Metformin D. Phenformin
Ans. (A) Tik 20
1. Birth weight of baby can be increased by:
A. Cessation of smoking B. Aspirin therapy
C. Calcium and magnesium D. Rest
Ans. (A) Cessation of smoking
2. Test most likely to be positive in a female with history of recurrent abortion and prolonged APIT: (AI 2007)
A. APT B. Bleeding time
C. Lupus anticoagulant D. Clot lysis test
Ans. (C) Lupus anticoagulant
3. Mortality rate is maximum in Pregnancy with which ofthe following heart diseases? (AIIMS 2006 Nov)
A. Eisenmenger’s syndrome B. Aortic Stenosis
C. Mitral Stenosis D. MVP
Ans. (A) Eisenmenger’s syndrome
4. Not a part of emergency obstetrics care (EmOC):
A. Blood transfusion B. Manual removal of placenta
C. Caesarean section D. Hysterectomy
Ans. (C) Caesarean section
5. Which of the following is most common bilateral ovarian tumor?
A. Dermoid B. Endodermal sinus tumor
C. Dysgerminoma D. GranuJosa cell tumor
Ans. (C) Dysgerminoma
6. Most commonly removed/resected part of loop in tubectomy include: (AI 2007)
A. Intramural part B. Isthmus
C. Ampulla D. Fimbrial end
Ans. (B) Isthmus
7. Most common cause of postmenopausal bleecting in India:
A. Carcinoma cervix B. Atrophic vaginitis.
C. Endometrial hyperplasia. D. Endometrial cancer.
Ans. (A) Carcinoma cervix
8. Schiller-Duval bodies are seen in: (Orrisa 2000)
A. Choriocarcinoma B. Embryonal cell Ca
C. Endodennal sinus tumour D. Immature teratoma
Ans. (C) Endodennal sinus tumour
9. Shape of cervical canal in nulliparous women is: (AI 2007)
A. Circular B. Tubular
C. Transverse D. Longitudinal
Ans. (C) Transverse
10. Which of the following has halflife of 10 years? (AI 2007)
A. Cu T200 B. Cu380A
C. Lippes loop D. LNG-IUD
Ans. (C) Lippes loop
11. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is beneficial in reducing all the following except: (AIIMS Nov. 2006)
A. Hot flushes B. Cardiovascular mortality
C. Osteoporosis D. Vaginal dryness
Ans. (B) Cardiovascular mortality
1. A child has presented with eczematous dermatitis on extensor aspects of extremities with severe itching. His mother has history of bronchial asthma. The likely diagnosis is: (AI 2007)
A. Acute eczematous reaction B. Scabies
C. Atopic dermatitis D. Infectious eczematoid dermatitis
Ans. (C) Atopic dermatitis
2. Which of the foUowing is TUBERCULIDE? (AI 2007)
A. Lupus vulgaris B. Lupus scrofulaceum
C. Scrofuloderma D. Tuberculosis verruca cutis
Ans. (B) Lupus scrofulaceum
1. Spongy mass in pancreas with central ‘Sunburst’ calcification seen on CT scan is characteristic of: (JK 2005)
A. Serous cystadenoma of pancreas B. Mucinous cystadenoma of pancreas
C. Somatostationoma D. Adenocarcinoma of pancreas
Ans. (A) Serous cystadenoma of pancreas
2. Which of the following test should be done for evaluation of a neonate with bullous skin lesion and X-ray showing periostitis at long bones? (AI 2007)
A. VORL of both mother and child B. PCR for tubercular ONA
C. Evaluation of mother D. ELISA study of child
Ans. (A) VORL of both mother and child
3. Most common site ofinvolvement in Histiocytosis X:
A. Skin B. Bone
C. Lung D. Liver
Ans. (B) Bone
4. Most common site of osteogenic sarcoma?
A. Lower end of femur B. Upper end of tibhi
C. Upper end of humerus D. Flat bones
Ans. (A) Lower end offemur
5. The most common location of hypertensive bleed in the brain? (AIIMS May 2003, AI 2003)
A. Putamen/external capsule B. Pons
C. Ventricles D. Lobar white matter
Ans. (A) Putamen/external capsule
6. Which of the foUowing is radioresistant tumor? (AIIMS 1992)
A. Seminoma B. Squamous cell Carcinoma
C. Neuroma D. Osteosarcoma
Ans. (D) Osteosarcoma
7. Not a fotm of mechanical deep heat therapy? (AI 2007)
A. Short wake diathermy B. Infrared therapy
C. High Frequency Ultrasound D. Microwave
Ans. (B) Infrared therapy
1. Anaesthetic agent of choice in patient with renal and hepatic failure:
A. Cisatracurium B. Vecuronium
C. Pipecuronium D. Doxacurium
Ans. (A) Cisatracurium
2. Merit ofnasotracheal intubation is:
A. Good oral hygiene
B. Less infection
C. Less mucosal damage and bleeding
D. More movement or displacement of endotra¬cheal tube
Ans. (A) Good oral hygiene
3. Not a feature of malignant hyperthermia:
A. DIC B. Hypertension
C. Hyperkalemia D. Bradycardia
Ans. (D) Bradycardia
4. Perioperative neuromuscular monitoring can be best tested on:
A. Facial nerve B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve D. Femoral nerve
Ans. (B) Ulnar nerve
1. Naltrexone (opiate antagonist) is used in treat¬ mentof: (AI 2007)
A. Opioid withdrawal B. Opioid overdose
C. Opioid dependence relapse D. Ethanol toxicity
Ans. (C) Opioid dependence relapse
2. Delusion is disorder of: (Maharashtra 2003, AI 2007)
A. Thought B. Insight
C. Perception D. Behaviour
Ans. (A) Thought
3. Drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD): (AI 2007)
A. Imipramine B. Fluoxetine
C. Haloperidol D. Clozapine
Ans. (B) Fluoxetine

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