1q: Vitamin A prophylaxis is an example of which of the following
a. Specific protection
b. Health promotion
c. Secondary protection
d. Primordial prevention
2q: What is the drug of choice for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
a. Imipramine
b. Alprazolam
c. Benzodiazepines
d. Fluoxetine
3q: A 60 year old presents with total painless gross hematuria. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria would be
a. USG
b. KUB X-ray
c. Urine C/E
d. Urine for malignant cells
4q: Portal flow is decreased to lowest in
a. Halothane
b. Isoflurane
c. Ether
d. Enflurane
5q: Cryoglobulinemia is associated with
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
a. Specific protection
b. Health promotion
c. Secondary protection
d. Primordial prevention
2q: What is the drug of choice for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
a. Imipramine
b. Alprazolam
c. Benzodiazepines
d. Fluoxetine
3q: A 60 year old presents with total painless gross hematuria. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria would be
a. USG
b. KUB X-ray
c. Urine C/E
d. Urine for malignant cells
4q: Portal flow is decreased to lowest in
a. Halothane
b. Isoflurane
c. Ether
d. Enflurane
5q: Cryoglobulinemia is associated with
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
a. IV regional anaesthesia
b. Brachial plexus supraclavicular application block
c. Brachial plexus axillary approach block
d. ??????
7q: Post glenohumeral instability is tested by which of the following
a. Crank test
b. Fulcrum test
c. Jerk test
d. Sulcus test
8q: A 20 year old has a swollen right ankle involvement with nodular painful swelling. He has associated fever and malaise. What is the probable diagnosis
a. Hansen disease
b. Weber christian disease
c. Erythema nodosum
d.
9q: A 35 year old lady with parity = 3, presents with CIN III. What is the treatment of choice?
a. Cryotherapy
b. LEEP
c. Conisation
d. Hysterectomy
10q: Faecal contamination of water is indicated by all except
a. Streptococcus
b. Staph.aureus
c. E.coli
d. Clostridium perfringens
11q: Which of the following is most diagnostic of Rabies?
a. Negri bodies
b. Guarnerii bodies
c. Cowdry B bodies
d.
12q: Meralgia paresthetica is due to the involvement of
a. Sural nerve
b. Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
d. Peroneal nerve
13q: Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except
a. Dura matter in Anterior fossa
b. Internal nasal cavity
c. Ethmoidal cells
d. Lining of maxillary sinus
14q: What is the most sensitive test for the detection of prostate cancer
a. Per rectal examination
b. Per rectal examination + PSA
c. PSA
d. MRI coil inside rectum
15q: What is the best investigation for Fracture of temporal bone?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. X-ray
d. Angiography
16q: CYP3A inhibition is caused by all except
a. Saquinavir
b. Ritonavir
c.
d.
*Here is a list of drugs which cause CYP3A inhibition.
17q: Chang classification is associated with
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Ewing's sarcoma
d.
18q: Appendices epiploicae are present in
a. Caecum
b. appendix
c. sigmoid colon
d. Rectum
19q: A woman with placenta previa - bleeds - What is most likely to occur after delivery?
a. lack of menstrual cycles
b. galactorrhea
c. Diabetes insipidus
d.
20q: Fastest decrease in K+ levels are achieved by
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Insulin + Glucose
c. Potassium resins
d. NaHCO3
a. CT
b. MRI
c. X-ray
d. Angiography
16q: CYP3A inhibition is caused by all except
a. Saquinavir
b. Ritonavir
c.
d.
*Here is a list of drugs which cause CYP3A inhibition.
17q: Chang classification is associated with
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Ewing's sarcoma
d.
18q: Appendices epiploicae are present in
a. Caecum
b. appendix
c. sigmoid colon
d. Rectum
19q: A woman with placenta previa - bleeds - What is most likely to occur after delivery?
a. lack of menstrual cycles
b. galactorrhea
c. Diabetes insipidus
d.
20q: Fastest decrease in K+ levels are achieved by
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Insulin + Glucose
c. Potassium resins
d. NaHCO3
sir
ReplyDeletethere is only few question......