ALL INDIA 2001 January MD/MS entrance examination

1. A woman presents with 2 months of amenorrhea, lower abdominal pain, facial pallor and shock. Diagnosis is

a. ruptured ovarian cyst

b. ruptured ectopic pregnancy

c. threatned abor.

d. septic abortion

Ans. b

2. (repeated) A child aged 2 years with 'a positive family history'. On peripheral blood smear target cells are seen. He has hypochromic microcytic anemia with Hb 6 gm%. Next investigation of choise is

a. Hb electrophoresis

b. coombs test

c. liver function tests

d. Osmatic fragility test

Ans. a

3. Consumption of uncooked pork is likely to cause infections with

a. Tinea saginata

b. Tinea solium

c. Hydatid cyst

d. Trichuris trichura

Ans. b

4. In a pregnant woman with red degeneration. Management is

a. myomectomy

b. conservative rx

c. hysterectomy

d. termination of pregnancy

Ans. b

5. Right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the

a. left gastric

b. splenic

c. celiac trunk

d. gastroduodenal

Ans. d

6. A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratory distress and froths at the mouth. Diagnosis is

a. tracheoesophageal fistula

b. tetralogy of fallot

c.

d.

Ans. a

7. consequence of maternal use of cocaine is

a. hydrops

b. sacral agenesis

c. cerebral infarction

d. hyper trichosis

Ans. c

8. A patient has involvement of PIP joint, DIP joint and the carpo-metacarpal of base of thumb, sparing the wrist joint is seen in

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

b. Osteoarthritis

c. Ankylosing spondilytis

d. Psoriasis arthritis

Ans. b

9. ovarian cyst detected in a pregnant woman; mgt:

a. immediate removal by laprotomy

b. wait and watch

c. second trimester surgery

d. remove at time of cesarean section

Ans. c

10. Motor supply of the diaphragm

a. thoracodorsal

b. intercostal nerves

c. phrenic nerve

d. sympathetic

Ans. c

11. All of the following are supplied by the facial nerve except

a. lacrimal gland

b. submandibular gland

c. nasal glands

d. parotid

Ans. d

12. FALSE regarding hCG

a. secreted by cytotrophoblasts

b. acts on same receptor as LH

c. has luteotrophic action

d.

Ans. a

13. In left coronary artery thrombosis, most likely involved ares is

a. anterior wall of right ventricle

b. anterior wall of left ventricle

c. anterior wall of right atrium

d. inferior surface of right ventricle

Ans. b

14. neonate has recurrent abdominal pain and diaphoresis on feeding, with murmur, which may lead to MI. diagnosis is

a. asd

b. vsd

c. tof

d. coronary anomalous

Ans. d

15. A neonate delivered at 32 weeks, on ventilator, xray shows 'white out', ABG reveals SpO2 of 75, ventilator settings are as, FiO2 70, rate 50/minute. Next step to be taken?

a. increase rate to 60

b. increase FiO2 to 80

c. continue with the same

d. weaning ventilator

Ans. ? (d)

16. A male pseudohermaphrodite child of 46 XY karyotype presents with BP 110/80 mmHg. Most likely enzyme deficiency is

a. 21 hydroxylase

b. 17 hydroxylase

c. 11 hydroxylase

d. 3-beta hydroxylase

Ans. ? b/d (if neonate = d)

17. Ramu, 8 yr old boy presents upper GI bleeding . On examination, there is splenomegaly, no ascites, no hepatomegaly; esophageal varices present on UGIE. Diagnosis is

a. budd chiari syndrome

b. non cirrhotic portal fibrosis

c. cirrhosis

d. veno occlusive disease

Ans. b

18. A 5 year child of is suffering from nephrotic syndrome is well responding to steroid therapy. What would be the finding on light microscopy:

a. no finding

b. basement membrabne thickning

c. podocyte lesions

d.

Ans. a

19. A neonate presents with respiratory distress, contralateral mediastinal shift and multiple cystic air filled lesions in chest. Most likely diagnosis is

a. congenital diaphragmatic hernia

b. congenital lung cysts

c. pneumonia

d.

Ans. b (ref. chapman)

20. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis, lytic skull lesions, ear discharge, hepatosplenomegaly; likely diagnosis

a. leukemia

b. lymphoma

c. histiocytosis X

d.

Ans. c

21. A neonate with jaundice and clay white stools. On liver biopsy giant cells were seen. diagnosis is

a. physiological jaundice

b. neonatal hepatitis with extrabiliary atresia

c. neonatal hepatitis with physiological jaundice

d.

Ans. b

22. A child aged 2 years with 'a positive family history'. On peripheral blood smear target cells oare seen. He has hypochromic microcytic anemia with Hb 6 gm%. Next investigation of choise is

a. Hb electrophoresis

b. coombs test

c. liver function tests

d. Osmatic fragility test

Ans. a

23. Most common cause of urine obstruction in a boy:

a. antr urethral valves

b. posterior urethral valves

c. stone

d.

Ans. b

24. Which bond is not formed between an enzyme substrate complex

a. electrostatic

b. covalent

c. van der waals

d. hydrogen

Ans. b

25. ground glass appearance is NOT seen in

a. hyaline membrane disease

b. pneumonia

c. left to right shunt

d. obstructive TAPVC

Ans. c

26. A 5 yr child present with calculus of size 2 cm. in the upper ureter. He has haematuri

a. On USG no obs is seen. TT of choice

a. ureterolithotomy

b. endoscopy

c. ESWL

d. observation

Ans. c

27. potts shunt is

a. rt subclavian artery to rt pulmonary

b. descending aorta to left pulmonary

c. left subclavian to left pulmonary

d. ascending aorta to right pulmonary

Ans. b

28. 3 month old child presents with intermittent stridor. Most likely cause is

a. laryngotracheobronchitis

b. laryngomalacia

c. respi. obstruction

d.

Ans. b

29. Which of the following is true regarding cretinism

a. short limbs compared to trunk

b. proportionate shortening

c. short limb and short stature

d. short limn long stature

Ans. c

30. A female 30 yrs old, presents with has abdominal mass with complain of sudden ab

d. Pain. Most likely diagnosis is

a. torsion of subserous fibroid

b. twisted ovarian cyst

c. rupture of ectopic preg.

d.

Ans. b

31. surfactant production in lungs starts at

a. 28 weeks

b. 32 wks

c. 34 wks

d. 36 wks

Ans. a

32. If urine sample darkens on standing, most likely condition is

a. phenylketonuria

b. alkaptonuria

c. maplpe syrup urine disease

d. DM

Ans. b

33. Which of the following condition requires dialysis

a. salicylate toxicity

b. digitalis toxicity

c. barbiturate toxicity

d.

Ans. a

34. Basanti age 29 yrs from bihar presents with tuberculosis. She delivers baby. She will be instructed all of the followings except

a. give baby BCG

b. withhld breast feeding

c. give ATT for 2 years

d. proper disposal of sputum

Ans. b

35. Highest binding of iron in plasma is seen with

a. transferrin

b. ferritin

c. hemoglobin

d. ceruloplasmin

Ans. a

36. Source of the nitrogen in urea cycle

a. aspartate and ammonia

b. glutamate and ammonia

c. argenase and ammonia

d.

Ans. a

37. Maximum no. of H bonds are found between which base pairs?

a. A-T

b. G-C

c. A-G

d. C-T

Ans. b

38. Basic amino acids are

a. aspartate and glutamate

b. serine and glycine

c. lysine and arginie

d.

Ans. c

39. Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk?

a. linoleate

b. linolenic

c. palmitic

d. d-hexanoic * * *

Ans. ?

40. blood is non-newtonian fluid because

a. viscosity changes with velocity

b. density changes with velocity

c. density does not changes with velocity

d. viscosity does not changes with velocity

Ans. tell us

41. Protonation and deprotonation at pH 7 occures in which amino acid

a. serine

b. histidine

c. threonine

d. proline

Ans. b

42. Patient of 47 XXY karyotype presents with features of hypogonadism; likely diagnosis:

a. turners

b. klinefelters

c. edwards

d. Down syn.

Ans. b

43. mother has sickle cell disease; husband is normal: % chances of children having, respectively, sickle cell disease and sickle cell trait:

a. 0 and 100

b. 25 and 75

c. 25 and 50

d. 25 and 25

Ans. a

44. A woman has had 2 previous anencephalic babies, risk of having a third one is

a. 0%

b. 10%

c. 25%

d. 50%

Ans. b

45. DNA analysis of chorionic villus/ amniocentesis NOT likely to detect

a. tay sachs

b. hemophilia A

c. sickle cell disease

d. duchenne muscular dystrophy

Ans.b/c ?

46. cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by

a. cyanide

b. carbon monoxide

c. MAO

d.

Ans. a

47. cystine deficient lactose media is preferred over McConkey agar because

a. former prevents swarming of proteus

b. it is a differential medium

c. prevents pseudomonas growth

d. promotes growth of candida

Ans. ?

48. A baby with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, organic acids in urine, lactic acidosis with normal ammoni

a. diagnosis is

a. organic aciduria

b. multiple carboxylase deficiency

c. propionic acidemia

d.

Ans. ?

49. Which of the following RNA has abnormal purine bases

a. tRNA

b. mRNA

c. rRNA

d. 16S RNA

Ans. a

50. All of the follwings are true about gout except

a. due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines

b. due to increased met

a. Of purines

c.

d.

Ans. a

51. A beta hemolytic bacteria resistant to vancomycin, gentamycin and ampicillin. It shows growth in 6.5% NaCl and bile is likely to be

a. strep agalactiae

b. strep pneumococcus

c. enterococcus

d. strep bovis

Ans. c

52. A child presents with white patch over the tonsils and resp. distress. A throat swab was taken. It should be cultured with

a. loeffler serus slope

b. LJ medium

c. Caryblair media

d.

Ans. a

53. Basanti, age 26, pregnant woman from bihar presents with hepatic encephalopathy. The likely diagnosis:

a. Hep E

b. hep B

c. sepsis

d. maternal alcohol toxicity

Ans. a

54. Toxin involved in the streptococcal toxic shock syndrome PJC

a. pyrogenic exotoxin

b. erythrogenic toxin

c. hemolysin

d. M Protien

Ans. a

55. A woman presnts with 6 weeks amenorrhea and lump in the RIF. Investigation of choice

a. USG abdomen

b. Laparoscopy

c. CT

d. shielded X - ray

Ans. a

56. All of the following are correct regarding streptococcus except

a. M protein is virulent factor

b. mucoid colony

c. m type is most common

d.

Ans. ?

57. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis:

a. RSV

b. Rhinovirus

c. Adenovirus

d. Rotavirus

Ans. c

58. Which of the following organism gives greenish/yellow coloured colonies

a. staphylococcus

b. E. Coli

c. Pseudomonas

d. Peptostreptococcus

Ans. c

59. All of the following are true regarding NK cells, except

a. activated by IL-2

b. variant to large lympho.

c. CD3 and TCR receptor present

d.

Ans. c

60. All of the following are true regarding regarding Ureaplasma urealyticum except

a. causes non gonococcal urethritis

b. associated with infertility

c. bacterial vagnosis

d. epididymitis

Ans. b/c ?

62. Which of the following is not a complete sterilization agent

a. glutaraldehyde

b. absolut alcohol

c. hydrogen peroxide

d. sodium hypochlorite

Ans. b

63 All of the following are correct regarding EHEC excpet

a. sereny test +ve

b. fermants sorbitol

c. causes HUS

d. shiga like exotoxin

Ans. a

64. Most common cause of meningitis in kids 6 months to 2 years of age

a. pneumococcus

b. staph

c. H influenza

d. E.coli

Ans. c

65. A patient with 14 days of fever, suspected to have typhoi

d. Most appropriate test is

a. blood culture

b. widal test

c. stool culture

d. urine culture

Ans. b ?

66. A 50 yrs old woman having post coital bleeding. She has a visible growth on PS. Next mm

a. punch biopsy

b. colposcopic biopsy

c. pap smear

d. cone biopsy

Ans. a

67. Rekha, a 45 yrs woman with negative pap smear with +ve endocervical curratage. next management will be

a.

b. vaginal hysterectomy

c. conisation

d. Warthim hysterectomy

Ans. c ?

68. A girl presnts with primary amenorrhea; grade V thelarche, grade II pubarche; no axillary hair; possible diagnosis

a. testicular feminisation

b. mullerian agenesis

c. turners

d. gonadal dysgenesis

Ans. a

69. Bilateral ovarian cancer with capsule breached, ascites positive for malignant cells: stage is:

a. I

b. II

c. III

d. IV

Ans. b

70. All of the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in APH patient except

a. 37 weeks

b. IUD

c. Transverse lie

d. continous profuse bleeding

Ans. c (ref. dutta)

71. Rokitansky Kuster hauser syndrome: most likely condition is

a. ovary agenesis

b. fallopian tubes absent

c. vaginal atresia

d. bicornuate uterus

Ans. c

72. All of the following are true regarding a patient with acid peptic disease except

a. mesoprostol is the drug of choice in given with NSAIDS

b. DU is preventable by the use of nighttime H2 blockers

c. omeprazole may help ulcers refractory to H2 blockers

d. mesoprostol is DOC in pregnant

Ans. d

73. A boy attempts suicide, brought to PRIVATE doctor and he is successfully cure. Doctor should

a. inform police

b. not required to inform

c. report to magistrate

d. callup girlfriend and ask her to make up

Ans. b

74. A case of carcinoma cervix found to be in altered sensorium and having hiccups. Cause could be

a. septicemia

b. uremia

c.

d.

Ans. b

75. patient of head injury, has no relatives, requires urgent cranial decompression; Doctor should

a. operate without formal consent

b. take police consent

c. wait for relatives

d. take

Ans. a

76. A pt with pneumonia for 5 days admitted to hospital. He suddenly ceases to recognize doctor and staff and think that the he is in jail. He complains of scorpions attacking him, is in altered sensorium: condition is:

a. acute delirium

b. acute dementia

c. acute schizophrenia

d. acute paranoid

Ans. a

77. Basanti age 27 years, female thinks her nose is ugly; her idea is fixed and not shared by anyone else. Whenever she goes out of home, she hides her face with a cloth. She visits to Surgeon. next step would be:

a. investigate and then operate

b. refer to psychiatrist

c. reassure the patient

d. immediate operation.

Ans. b

78. A patient having sensation of bugs crawling all over his body: this may be effect of

a. cocaine

b. alcohol

c. tea

d. benzodiazepines

Ans. a

79. A person missing from home, found wandering purposefully, well groomed, has some degree of amnesia

a. dissociative fugue

b. dissociative amnesia

c. schizophrenia

d. dementia

Ans. a

80. swelling in the neck after a thyroidectomy; what is the likely complication.

a. resp. obstruction

b. recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

c. hypo volumia

d.

Ans. a

81. Dinesh, age 56 years man with complaints of slowness of movements, postural instability, tremors, rigidity and memory loss. Diagnosis is

a. multi infarct dementia

b. Alzheimer's disease

c. parkinsonism

d.

Ans. c

82. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following:

a. ca kidney

b. ca colon

c. testicular terotoma

d. ca cervix

Ans. d

83. Indicative of ante-mortem drowning?

a. cutis anserina

b. rigor mortis

c. washerwomans feet

d. grass and weeds grasped in the hand

Ans. d

84. A man with alcoholic liver failure requires general anesthesia for surgery. Anaesthetic agent of choice is

a. ether

b. halothane

c. methoxyflurane

d. isoflurane

Ans. d

85. All of the followings are true regarding the pudendal nerve, except

a. sensory and motor

b. derived from S2,3,4

c. comes out through the lesser sciatic foramen

d. main nerve supply of pelvic organs

Ans. c

86. In the fracture of middle cranial fossa, absence of tears would be due to lesion in

a. trigeminal ganglion

b. ciliary ganglion

c. greater superficial petrosal nerve

d. cervical ganglion

Ans. c

87. Gettlers test is done for

a. death by drowning

b. hanging

c. burns

d. phosphorus poisoning

Ans. a

88. All of the following are true about coronary artery except-

a. right coronary in anterior interventricular groove

b. usually 3 obtuse margical artery arised from left coronary artery

c. in 85% cases posterior descending artery arises from right co. art.

d.

Ans. b

89 (ref. gray's) 19. Pivot test is for

a. anterior cruciate ligament

b. posterior cruciate ligament

c. medial meniscus injury

d. lateral meniscus injury

Ans. a

90. Babu, 19 yrs has small circumscribed sclerotic swelling over diaphysis of femur bone; diagnosis is

a. osteoclastoma

b. osteosarcoma

c. ewings sarcoma

d. osteoid osteoma

Ans. d

91. A patient had injury to the upper limb 3 yrs earlier, now he presents with paresthesia over the medial border of the hand and anaethesia over medial two finger. The injury is likely to have been:

a. supracondylar fracture

b. lateral condyle fracture humerus

c. medial condyle fracture humerus

d. posterior dislocation of the humerus

Ans. b

92. Most common site of osteosarcoma

a. femur, upper end

b. femur, lower end

c. tibia, lower end

d. fibula, lower end

Ans. b

93. A patient had injury on his shoulder. Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, he develops weakness of flexion shoulder, lack of sensation over the lateral aspect forearm; nerve injured:

a. radial

b. musculocutaneous

c. axillary

d. ulnar

Ans. b

94. Basanti aged 61 years, falls from height. She comaplains lower limb extended, externally rotated, pain and inability to move lim

b. Most likely diagnosis is -

a. fracture neck femur

b. trochanteric femur fracture

c. posterior dislocation hip

d. anterior dislocation of hip

Ans. b ?

95. babloo, age 10 years, presents with fracture of humerus. Xray reveals a lytic lesion at the upper en

d. Likely condition is

a. unicameral bone cyst

b. osteosarcoma

c. giant cell tumour

d. osteo chondroma (?)

Ans. a

96. Triple arthrodesis foot involves

a. calcaneocuboid, talonavicular and talocalcaneal

b. tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid and talocalcaneal

c. ankle joint , calcaneocuboid and talocalcaneal

d.

Ans. a

97. In an infertile woman, endometrial biopsy reveals proliferative changes. Which Hormone should be prefered?

a. MDPA

b. Desogestrol

c. norethisteron

d.

Ans. c

98. patient complains of post coital bleed, no tumor seen per speculum, next step:

a. colposcopy biopsy

b. conisation

c. repeat pap smear

d. culdoscopy

Ans. a

99. In a post polio case, ilio-tibial tract contracture is likely to result in

a. extension at the hip and knee

b. extension at the hip

c. flexion at the hip and the knee

d. extension at the knee

Ans. ? (a/d)

100. Snow storm appearance is seen in USG

a. hydatidiform mole

b.

c.

d.

Ans. a

101. A pregnant diabetic on oral sulphonyl urea is shifted to insulin. All of the followings are true regarding this, EXCEPT a) sul. urea causes PIH b) insulin does not cross placenta c) oral hypoglycaemics crosses placenta and deplete foetal insulin d) during pregnancy insulin requirement increases and cannot be provided with sulphonyl ureas

Ans. a

102. All of the following are true regarding ticlopidine except

a. directly interacts with platelet membrane

b. onset of action is delayed

c. ecconaid dependent/independent ???

d.

Ans. ?

103. reason for reducing drug dosage in elderly

a. body water decreased

b. increased baroreceptor sensitivity

c. lean and thin mass

d.

Ans. b

104. true regarding adenomyosis:

a. more common in nullipara

b. progestins are not useful

c. presents with menrrhagia, dysmenorria, and enlarged uterus

d. more common in multipar

a.

Ans. c

105. drug containing two sulfhydryl groups in a molecule

a. BAL

b. EDTA

c. Penicillamine

d.

Ans. a

106. All of the following are true about apomorphine about selegiline except

a. apomrphine is used in on-off phenomenon

b. selegiline is a MAO-A inhibitor

c. used in parkinsonism

d. selegiline does not cause cheese reaction

Ans. b

107. True about inverse agonists?

a. attach to recetor and act in same direction

b. attach to recetor and act in opp. direction

c. inhibit the attachment of agonist

d.

Ans. b

108. Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala

a. robert's

b. naegele's

c.

d.

Ans. b

109. Force generating proteins are

a. myosin and myoglobin

b. dynein and kinesin

c. calmodelin and G protien

d. troponin

Ans. b

110. Protein involved in intercellular connections

a. connexin

b. integrin

c. adhesin

d.

Ans. a

111. Initiation of nerve impulse occurs at the axon hillock because

a. it has a lower threshold than the rest of the axon

b. it is unmyelinated

c. neuro transmitter are release at this place

d.

Ans. a

112. which of the following is a FALSE statement

a. iv N.

a. increases systolic and diasotlic BP and causes tachycardia

b. iv Adr increases systolic, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia

c. iv isoproterenol causes no change in systolic, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia

d. dopamine decreases peripheral resistance, improves renal perfusion

Ans. a

113.Which is true about measurement of BP with syphgnomonmeter

a. Less than intravascular pressure

b. More than intravascular pressure

c. Equal to IVP

d. Depend upon blood flow Ans a ?

114. All of following is correct regarding capillaries except

a. greatest surface area

b.

c. contains more blood than veins

d. have single layer of cells bounding the lumen Ans c

115. mechanism of action of tetracycline

a. binds to A site ribosome

b. inhibits peptidyl transferase

c. causes misreading of mRNA

d. causes termination of peptide chain elongation Ans a

116. single most important factor in control of automatic contractility of heart

a. end diastolic volune

b. right atrial volume

c. SA node pacemaker potential

d. symps. Stimulation

Ans. ?

117. All of the following are correct about alkylating agent except

a. folinic acid terminates the action of methotrexate

b.

c.

d. Ans a

118. albumin contributes the maximum to oncotic pressure because it has

a. high mol wt, low concentration

b. low mol wt, low conc

c. high mol wt, high conc

d. low mol wt, high con

c. Ans d

119. drug that is radioprotective

a. paclitaxel

b. vincristine c, amifostin

d. Etoposide Ans. c

120. tidal volume is calculated by

a. inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratory reserve volume

b. total lung capacity minus the reserve volume

c.

d. Ans. a

121. metalloproteins help in jaundice by what mechanism

a. increased glucoronyl transferase activity

b. inhibit heme oxygenase

c. decrease RBC lysis

d. increase Y and Z receptors Ans. b

122. beta blocker that can be used in renal failure

a. propranolol

b. pindolol

c. sotalol

d. oxyprenolol Ans. c

123. A 0.5 litre blood loss in 30 minutes will lead to

a. increase in HR, decrease in BP

b. slight increase in HR, normal BP

c. decrease in HR and BP

d. prominent increase in HR Ans. b

124. A patient present with waxy flexibility, negativitism and rigidity. Diagnosis is

a. Catatonic schizophrenia

b. paranoid schizophrenia

c. heb schizophrenia

d.

Ans. a

125. which of foll. NOT found in diabetic retinopathy on fundus examination

a. microaneurysms

b. retinal hemorrhages

c. arteriolar dilatation

d. neovascularisation Ans. c

126. with 20 permanent teeth and 8 temporary teeth, the age is likely to have been

a. 9 yrs

b. 10

c. 11

d. 12

Ans. c

127. A case of bells palsy; no improvement after 2 weeks; what to do next

a. vasodilators and ACTH

b. physiotherapy and electrical stimulation

c. Increase steroid dosage

d. Electrophysiological nerve testing

Ans. b

128. Vitamin B12 deficiency is likely to cause

a. bitemporal hemianopia

b. binasal hemianopia

c. heteronymous hemianopia

d. centrocecal scotoma

Ans. d

129. Woman complains of coloured haloes around lights in evening, nausea and vomiting, with normal IOP. Diagnosis is

a. incipient stage glaucoma open angle

b. prodromal stage, closed angle glaucoma

c. migraine

d.

Ans. b

130. Facial nerve injury following head trauma; fracture of the mastoid present; intervention:

a. immediate decompression

b. wait and watch

c. facial sling

d.

Ans. a

131. A woman survives an road traffic accident. After she experiences intense fear while traveling; diagnosis is

a. PSTD

b. PTSD

c. DTSP

d. STD

Ans. b

132. Babu, age 40 years suffers sudden palpitations and apprehension. He is sweating lasting 10 minutes, with dooming of death. Diagnosis is

a. hysteria

b. cystic fibrosis

c. panic attack

d. generalized anxiety disorder

Ans. c

133. diabetic aged 40 has blackish nose discharge

a. mucormycosis

b. actinomycosis

c.

d.

Ans. a

134. A patient has meiotic pupil, IOP = 25,normal anterior chamber, hazy cornea with shallow anterior chamber of fellow eye. Diagnosis is

a. acute antr uveitis

b. acute angle closure glaucoma

c. acute open angle glaucoma

d. senile cataract

Ans. a

135. boy aged 15 has unilateral nasal blockade, mass in the cheek, epistaxis:

a. nasopharyngeal ca

b. angiofibroma

c. inverted papilloma

d.

Ans. b

136. Most radiosensitive tumour of the following is

a. supraglottic ca

b. ca glottis

c. ca nasopharynx

d. subglottic ca

Ans. b

137. A 5 yrs child presents with large cornea, lacrimation and photophobi

a. Diagnosis is

a. megalocornea

b. congenital glaucoma

c. congenital cataract

d. anterior uveitis

Ans. b

138. eye deviated laterally and downwards, patient unable to look up or medially, likely nerve involved

a. trochlear

b. trigeminal

c. oculomotor

d. abducens

Ans. c

139. FALSE regarding hyperplastic tuberculosis of GI

a. mass RIF

b. Barium meal shows pulled up caecum

c. most common site is ileocecal

d. ATT alone can be used as rx

Ans. d

140. elderly male with heart disease has sudden loss of vision in one eye, examination reveals a cherry red spot; diagnosis

a. central retinal vein occlusion

b. central retinal artery occlusion

c. amaurosis fugax

d. acute ischemic optic neuritis

Ans. b

141. Chalky white optic disc on fundus examination is seen in all except

a. syphilis

b. lebers hereditary optic neuropathy / post neuritic ?

c. post papilledema optic neuritis

d. traumatic injury to the optic nerve

Ans. ?

142. patient presents with recurrent duodenal ulcer of 2.5 cm size; procedure of choice

a. truncal vagotomy and antrectomy

b. TV and GJ

c. highly selective vagotomy

d. Laparoscopic vagotomy and GJ

Ans. a

143. patient has neck swelling and respiratory distress 8 hours after a thyroidectomy surgery. Next mmg

a. open immediatly

b. Trecheostomy

c. wait and watch

d. oxygen by mask Ans. a ?

144. 56 year old woman has passed no stools for 14 days. Xray shows no air fluid levels. Probable diagnosis is

a. paralytic ileus

b. agangliionosis of the colon

c. intestinal pseudo obstruction

d. duodenal obs.

Ans. ? d/c

145. case of blunt trauma, in shock, not responding to IV crystalloids, next step:

a. immediate laparotomy

b. blood transfusion

c. albumin transfusion

d. abdominal compression

Ans. a

146. patient on same evening after thyroidectomy has swelling and difficulty breathing. Next mmg.

a. open immediatly

b. intubate oro tracheally

c. wait and watch

d. oxygen by mask

Ans. a ?

147. long standing case of multinodular goitre develops hoarseness and sudden increase in size. likely diagnosis is

a. follicular ca

b. papillary ca

c. medullary ca

d. anaplastic ca

Ans. a

148. A man aged 60 yrs has h/o IHD and atherosclerosis. He presents with abdominal pain and maroon stools:

a. acute intestinal obstruction

b. acute mesenteric ischemia

c. peritonitis

d. appendicitis

Ans. b

149. A 45 year old woman presents with hard and mobile lump is breast. Most confirmatory investigation is

a. FNAC

b. USG

c. Mammography

d. Excision biopsy

Ans. d

150. A neonate suspected to have congenital syphilis, diagnostic test to be done is

a. FTA ABS IgM

b. FTA-ABS IgG

c. TPI

d.

Ans. a